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krek1111 [17]
3 years ago
5

Yasmine made waffles for her family.4/7 of the waffles where blueberry 1/7 of the waffles where chocolate chip . The rest of the

waffles did not have blue berries or chocolate chip. What fraction of the waffles did not have blue berries or chocolate chips?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Dvinal [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

2/7 of the waffles did not have blueberries or chocolate chips.

Step-by-step explanation:

So first, it says 4/7 were blueberry, and 1/7 were chocolate chip. When you add them two you get 5/7. The denominator is 7, so subtract 7 from 5 and you get 2, 2/7. 2/7 of the waffles did not have blueberries or chocolate chips.

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Sally is driving at 30 miles an hour on the Freeway. The next town Sally will reach is 20 miles away. How long will it take Sall
lilavasa [31]

Sally to get to the next town in 2/3 hour.

According to the statement

The distance covered by sally to get next town is 20 miles

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We know that the

TIME = DISTANCE / SPEED

Substitute the values in it and

TIME = 20 / 30

TIME = 2/3 hour

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2 years ago
Six less than the product of five and a number is ten.
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nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep
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Answer:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 2)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

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