Answer:
A. $5.17
Explanation:
Use the following formula to calculate the Earnings per share
Earnings per share = ( Net Income - preferred Dividend ) / Weighted average numbers of outstanding shares
Where
Net Income = $370,000
Preferred Dividend = 10,000 x $100 x 6% = $60,000
Weighted average numbers of outstanding shares = 54,000 shares + ( 18,000 shares x 4/12 ) = 54,000 shares + 6,000 shares = 60,000 shares
Placing values in the formula
Earnings per share = ( $370,000 - $60,000 ) / 60,000 shares
Earnings per share = $5.17 per share
Explanation:
According to the question , the reward - to - risk ratio for the stock A is lesser than that of the Stock B .
The beta values for both the stock is given as -
Stock A = 0.82
and ,
Stock B = 1.29 ,
From the above information , it can be implied that either stock B is under price or the stock A is overpriced, or both .
Since , in the above case the absolute sense can not be determined and only the judgement can be made .
Answer:
Common Stock $3,400 (credit)
Mower $1,600 (debit)
Revenue Service $1,000 (credit)
Cash $2,600 (debit)
Gas Expense $100 (debit)
Dividends $0
Explanation:
See below the posting i have done to the ledger accounts.
Mower T - Account
Debit :
Accounts Payable $1,600
Credit :
Balance c/d $1,600
Revenue Service T - Account
Debit :
Balance c/d $1,000
Credit :
Account Receivable $1,000
Cash T - Account
Debit :
Common Stock $3,400
Credit :
Gas Expense $100
Dividends $700
Balance c/d $2,600
Gas Expense T - Account
Debit :
Cash $100
Credit :
Balance c/d $100
Dividends - T Account
Debit :
Shareholders for dividends $700
Credit :
Cash $700
Answer:
The correct answer is $473 (Unfavorable).
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Actual overhead = $11,183
Budgeted Overhead = $10,710
So, we can calculate the controllable variance by using following formula:
Controllable variance = Actual overhead - Budgeted overhead
By putting the value, we get
Controllable variance = $11,183 - $10,710
= $473 ( Positive shows unfavorable)
= $473 (unfavorable)
Answer:
Option A. frictional unemployment, is the right answer.
Explanation:
Option A is correct because frictional unemployment is referred to as a situation when people change their job and remains unemployed during this period. For example, a person leaves his earlier job and starts finding a new job. It took him one month to find a new job, therefore, this period of one month during which he was unemployed and looking for a job is considered to be as the frictional unemployment.
