Answer:
True
Explanation:
To illustrate how the sum-of-the-digits method allocates interest we can use a lease example:
You are the lessor and you will lease a machine during 4 years. The lease requires 4 equal payments of $100,000 at the beginning of the year. After the lease, the asset's salvage value = $0.
The asset's current value = $300,000, so total interests received = $100,000
Using the sum-of-the-digits method, you will allocate interest as follows:
- year 1 = 3/6 x $100,000 = $50,000
- year 2 = 2/6 x $100,000 = $33,333
- year 3 = 1/6 x $100,000 = $17,000
The largest portion of interests is allocated during the beginning of the loan.
Answer:
The answer is option ( C.) Increase of 1.06 percent
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of equity = 14.6%
Market risk premium = 8.4%
Risk-free rate = 3.9%
Company's beta = 1.4
Now,
Expected Return = Risk-free rate + ( Beta × Market risk premium )
= 3.9% + ( 1.4 × 8.4% )
= 3.9% + 11.76%
= 15.66%
Therefore,
The change in firm's cost of equity capital = 15.66% - 14.6%
= 1.06%
Hence,
The answer is option ( C.) Increase of 1.06 percent
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Generally, on a production possibilities curve, the optimal point is achieved where each good is produced at a level where marginal benefits equal marginal costs.
<h3>What is an
optimal point?</h3>
On a graph, this refers to the best or most favorable point on a graph curve etc
Hence, on the a production possibilities curve, the optimal point is achieved where each good is produced at a level where marginal benefits equal marginal costs.
Therefore, the Option B is correct.
Read more about optimal point
<em>brainly.com/question/92653</em>
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