Group 1: Group 2
1 : 3
Total amount of splits = 1 + 3 = 4
48/4 = 12
12 : 12+12+12
12 : 36
12 in pile 1 and 36 in pile 2.
Answer:
the answer is f(x) = n*(-2)
ratio is the wrong word to use, it is for contolled variation in probability. a sequence is controlled by what is known as a function - f(x) is the symbol for a function
Step-by-step explanation:
the following number of the previous one in the sequence is derived by the function f(x)=n*(-2)
2 x -2 = -4 (positive x negative = negative)
-4 × -2 = 8 (negative x negative = positive)
8 x -2 = -16 (positive x negative = negative)
so in the sequence, the trend of -,+ double will go on
Answer:14
Step-by-step explanation:
A nickel is 5 cents (20% of dollar)
and a quarter is 25 cents (25% of dollar)
We have given a pile of 42 coins worth of $4.90
Let x be the no nickels and
y be the no of quarter
therefore
x+y=42 -----1
+
=4.90 ---2
Solving 
we get
x=14 & y=28
Therefore no of nickels is 14 & no of quarters is 28
-converting to a common denominator
The terms -c of the left side was converted to -4ac/4a to have the same denominator of b^2/4a.
Answer:
In khan academy, just plot the points and the answer is yes.
Step-by-step explanation:
Use the table to plot the points and you'll figure out that it's proportional- so the answer to the question below is yes. Doesn't need too much explaining.
