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3 years ago

Find the value of 15.0 N in pounds. Use the conversions 1slug=14.59kg and 1ft=0.3048m .

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sliva [168]3 years ago

6 0

The value of 15.0 N in pounds = 3.375 lb

<h3><em>Further explanation </em></h3>

The derivative magnitude is a quantity derived from the principal amount

7 main quantities have been determined based on international standards, namely:

1. Length, meters (m)

2. Time, second (s)

3. Mass, kilograms (kg)

4. Temperature, kelvin (K)

5. Light intensity, candela (cd)

6. Electric current, ampere (A)

7. Amount of substance, mol (m)

Newton (N) is one unit of force (F) which is a quantity derived from mass (m), length (l) and time (s)

Newton can be expressed in terms of Kg m / s²

Formula used:

F = m. a

N = kg. m / s²

In the British system there are units of slug, feet, and pounds so that the unit of force becomes:

F = m. a

Lb = slug. ft / s²

The relationship between the two-unit systems above is:

1 kg = 0.0685 slug

1 slug = 14.59 kg

1 newton = 0.225 lb

1 lb = 4,448 newtons

1 ft = 0.3048 m

So if we change 15 N to lb by using slug and ft

15 N = 15 * (1 / 14.59) slug * (1 / 0.3048) ft / s²

15 N = 3,375 slug ft / s ²

15 N = 3,375 lb

or we convert directly:

15 N = 15 * 0.225 lb

15 N = 3,375 lb

<h3><em>Learn more </em></h3>

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Keywords: slug, Newton, feet, kg, pound

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2 years ago

Complete the square and write in standard form. Show all work.What would be the conic section:CircleEllipseHyperbolaParabola

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ANSWER

This is an ellipse. The equation is:

$\frac{(x-1)^2}{3^2}+\frac{(y+4)^2}{4^2}=1$

EXPLANATION

We have to complete the square for each variable. To do so, we have to take the first two terms and compare them with the perfect binomial squared formula,

$(a+b)^2=a^2+2ab+b^2$

For x we have to take 16x² and -32x. Since the coefficient of x is not 1, first, we have to factor out the coefficient 16,

$16x^2-32x=16(x^2-2x)$

Now, the first term of the expanded binomial would be x and the second term -2x. Thus, the binomial is,

$(x-1)^2=x^2-2x+1$

To maintain the equation, we have to subtract 1,

$16(x^2-2x+1-1)=16((x-1)^2-1)=16(x-1)^2-16$

Now, we replace (16x² - 32x) from the given equation by this equivalent expression,

$16(x-1)^2-16+9y^2+72y+16=0$

The next step is to do the same for y. We have the terms 9y² + 72y. Again, since the coefficient of y² is not 1, we factor out the coefficient 9,

$9y^2+72y=9(y^2+8y)$

Following the same reasoning as before, we have that the perfect binomial squared is,

$(y+4)^2=y^2+8y+16$

Remember to subtract the independent term to maintain the equation,

$9(y^2+8y)=9(y^2+8y+16-16)=9((y+4)^2-16)=9(y+4)^2-144$

And now, as we did for x, replace the two terms (9y² + 72y) with this equivalent expression in the equation,

$16(x-1)^2-16+9(y+4)^2-144+16=0$

Add like terms,

$\begin{gathered} 16(x-1)^2+9(y+4)^2+(-16-144+16)=0 \\ 16(x-1)^2+9(y+4)^2-144=0 \end{gathered}$

Add 144 to both sides,

$\begin{gathered} 16(x-1)^2+9(y+4)^2-144+144=0+144 \\ 16(x-1)^2+9(y+4)^2=144 \end{gathered}$

As we can see, this is the equation of an ellipse. Its standard form is,

$\frac{(x-h)^2}{a^2}+\frac{(y-k)^2}{b^2}=1$

So the next step is to divide both sides by 144 and also write the coefficients as fractions in the denominator,

$\begin{gathered} \frac{16(x-1)^2}{144}+\frac{9(y+4)^2}{144}=\frac{144}{144} \\ \\ \frac{(x-1)^2}{\frac{144}{16}}+\frac{(y+4)^2}{\frac{144}{9}}=1 \end{gathered}$

Finally, we have to write the denominators as perfect squares, so we identify the values of a and b. 144 is 12², 16 is 4² and 9 is 3²,

$\frac{(x-1)^2}{(\frac{12}{4})^2}+\frac{(y+4)^2}{(\frac{12}{3})^2}=1$

Note that we can simplify a and b,

$\frac{12}{4}=3\text{ and }\frac{12}{3}=4$

Hence, the equation of the ellipse is,

$\frac{(x-1)^2}{3^2}+\frac{(y+4)^2}{4^2}=1$

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

There are 8 tennis players in a round robin tournament, which means each team will play every other team once. How many matches

Aliun [14]

<h3>Answer: 28</h3>

==========================================================

Explanation:

Method 1

Imagine a table with 8 rows and 8 columns to represent all possible match-ups. You can actually draw out this table or just think of it as a thought experiment.

There are 8*8 = 64 entries in the table. Along the northwest diagonal, we have each team pair up with itself. This is of course silly and impossible. We cross off this entire diagonal so we drop to 64-8 = 56 entries.

Then notice that the lower left corner is a mirror copy of the upper right corner. A match-up like AB is the same as BA. So we must divide by 2 to get 56/2 = 28 different matches.

----------------------------------

Method 2

There are 8 selections for the first slot, and 8-1 = 7 selections for the second slot. We have 8*7 = 56 permutations and 56/2 = 28 combinations.

----------------------------------

Method 3

Use the nCr combination formula with n = 8 and r = 2

$n C r = \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}\\\\8 C 2 = \frac{8!}{2!*(8-2)!}\\\\8 C 2 = \frac{8!}{2!*6!}\\\\8 C 2 = \frac{8*7*6!}{2!*6!}\\\\ 8 C 2 = \frac{8*7}{2!}\\\\ 8 C 2 = \frac{8*7}{2*1}\\\\ 8 C 2 = \frac{56}{2}\\\\ 8 C 2 = 28\\\\$

There are 28 combinations possible. Order doesn't matter (eg: match-up AB is the same as match-up BA).

Notice how the (8*7)/2 expression is part of the steps shown above in the nCr formula.

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