When Ashton, the appraiser applies more weight to two comparables over several others he used, he is utilizing the: Correlation method.
<h3>What is the Correlation Method?</h3>
The correlation method is the method utilized in the sales comparison approach where more importance is given to two properties being compared against some others.
The sales comparison approach itself is used in analyzing the worth of a property by comparing it to others that have been sold in recent times.
Learn more about the sales comparison approach here:
brainly.com/question/14497595
Answer:
Explanation:
1. Calculate the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be calculated as:
= Standard Hours - Actual Hours) × Standard rate
= (15000/225 × 5.25 - 15000/250 × 5) × 38
= (350 - 300) × 38
= 50 × 38
= 1900 Favourable
2) Calculate the rate variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be:
= Standard rate- Actual rate) × Actual Hour
= (38-40) × (15000/250 × 5)
= -2 × 300
= -600 Unfavourable
3) Calculate the flexible-budget spending variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be the difference between the standard cost and the actual cost. This will be:
= (15000/225×5.25 ×38) - (15000/250×5 ×40)
= 13300 - 12000
= 1300 Favourable
4) Calculate the spending variance for fixed setup overhead costs.
what formular did you use.
This will be:
= Standard Cost - Actual Cost
= 9975-12000
= -2025 Unfavorable
The answer is "<span>Refer to Fact Pattern 16-1. Between Grain and Hearty, there is a</span><span> written contract".
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An agreement is a verbal or written consent to do work in return for some advantage, for the most part an payment. A written contract is an agreement made on a printed record that has been marked by both the moneylender and the borrower. Composed contracts are lawfully official and less demanding to implement than oral contracts.
These are payment terms in the accounting. The first term 2/10 means that if you can pay the amount after 10 days, you would be given a 2% discount. If not, that's what the second terms means. This means you have to pay the net or full amount within 30 days.
So, if he can pay within 10 days, he will only have to give $3214.4. If not, then he would have to pay $3280 within 30 days.
Answer:
Dr interest expense $2448
Dr interest payable $3060
Dr Notes payable $61,200
Cr cash($2448
+$3060
+$61,200) $ 66,708.00
Explanation:
The interest accrued at 31st December 2022 is interest for 5 months which is calculated thus:
interest as at 31st December=5/12*12%*61,200=$3060
On that interest expense would have been debited while interest payable is credited with $3060
On the due date, interest for another months need to computed as follows:
interest for four months=4/12*12%*61,200=$2448
