Answer:
entire initial investment will not be recovered.
Explanation:
Payback period is one of the methods used in capital budgeting.
Payback period calculates how long it takes for the amount invested in a project to be recovered from its cummulative cash flows.
For example, if a project costs $360 and the cash flow each year for its 6 years useful life is $120. The amount invested would be gotten back from the cummulative cash flow in 3 years.
But if a project costs $360 and the cash flow each year for its 2 years useful life is $120. The amount invested would never be gotten back the cummulative cash flow. Therefore, the entire investment amount will never be entirely recovered.
The project will always not be profitable
I hope my answer helps you.
Answer:
1. In the short run, wages and other prices are stagnant making the economy to run below or above the normal level. In the long run, wages and prices are fully flexible, and this allows the economy to run at its natural level.
2. This distinction is important because it helps us to see how difficult it could be to sustain the real gross domestic product and employment rates thus making the economy to run at a normal level or achieve its full potentials.
Explanation:
Stickiness or stagnancy of wages can be seen in the fact that it is most time difficult to fluctuate or change the wages of workers overtime. The prices of most goods are also sticky when they remain unchanged over a given period of time. These conditions exist in the short run, and make the economy to run above or below its full potentials. The real GDP and unemployment levels are negatively affected.
In the long run, flexibility of wages and prices are achieved and this makes the economy to run at its full potentials. The real GDP as well as the employment rate are at their optimum level then.
Answer: 7.46%
Explanation:
The CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODEL is a very useful tool for calculating a firm's Cost of Equity.
The Formula is,
Rc = Rrf + b(Rpm)
Where,
Rc is the Cost of Equity
Rpf is the Risk risk free rate
b is beta
Rpm is the risk premium
Plugging in the digits we have,
Rc = 0.0350 + 0.88(0.045)
= 0.0746
The firm's cost of equity from retained earnings based on the CAPM is therefore 7.46%
Answer:
P3 = $96.9425 rounded off to $96.94
Explanation:
To calculate the market price of the stock three years from today (P3), we will use the constant growth model of DDM. The constant growth model calculates the values of the stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under this model is,
P0 = D1) / (r - g)
Where,
- D1 is the dividend expected for the next period
- g is the constant growth rate
- r is the required rate of return on the stock
To calculate the price of the stock today (P0), we use the dividend expected for the next period (D1). So, to calculate the price at the end of 3 years (P3) we will use D4.
We first need to calculate r using the CAPM equation. The equation is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
- rRF is the risk free rate
- rpM is the market risk premium
r = 0.058 + 0.6 * 0.05
r = 0.088 or 8.8%
Using the price formula for DDM above and the values for P0, D1 and r, we can calculate the g to be,
80 = 1.75 / (0.088 - g)
80 * (0.088 - g) = 1.75
7.04 - 80g = 1.75
7.04 - 1.75 = 80g
5.29/80 = g
g = 0.066125 or 6.6125%
We first need to calculate D4.
D4 = D1 * (1+g)^3
D4 = 1.75 * (1+0.066125)^3
D4 = 2.12061793907
Using the formula from DDM for P3, we can calculate P3 to be,
P3 = 2.12061793907 / (0.088 - 0.066125)
P3 = $96.9425 rounded off to $96.94
Answer:
Explanation:
7
+
5
−
9
+
2
−
1
2
7y+5x-9+2y-12x
7y+5x−9+2y−12x
Simplify
1
Combine like terms
7
+
5
−
9
+
2
−
1
2
{\color{#c92786}{7y}}+5x-9+{\color{#c92786}{2y}}-12x
7y+5x−9+2y−12x
9
+
5
−
9
−
1
2
{\color{#c92786}{9y}}+5x-9-12x
9y+5x−9−12x
2
Combine like terms
3
Rearrange terms
Solution
−
7
+
9
−
9
