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sleet_krkn [62]
2 years ago
11

39,892 to the nearest 1000 on the number line

Mathematics
1 answer:
Iteru [2.4K]2 years ago
7 0

I'm pretty sure it would be 40,000 because if i'm not mistaken you meant the nearest 10,000 since the number is 39,892.

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Free to whoever gets it​
liraira [26]

LolAnswer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Round 32.697 to the nearest tenth hundredth and whole number
zalisa [80]
To the nearest tenth : 32.7

To the nearest hundredth : 32.70

Whole Number : 33

Hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
Need help only good answer plis!
Nesterboy [21]

A. The angles at the intersection of the two lines can be proven to be congruent and complementary . so they meet at a right angle and the lines are perpendicular.

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

In above question, In order to find whether AB ⊥ CD, Using compass construction & rounder , keep the tip at A and cut arcs at line CD . Follow the same process again with tip at B and cut arcs at line CD . Do this both sides of Line CD i.e. on left side of AB & on right side of AB. Now, join the intersection points of both side arcs which are intersecting each other. Now, to prove both are right angle to each other i.e.  AB ⊥ CD , can be done by proving congruent  and complementary , so they meet at a right angle and Hence , the lines are perpendicular i.e. AB is inclined to CD at angle of 90°.

8 0
3 years ago
The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation
rodikova [14]

Answer: C) y=sin^-1 x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function y=cos^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=cos^{-1}1=0

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cos^{-1} x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=cot^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=cot^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function y=cot^{-1}x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cot^{-1}x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=sin^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=sin^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{2}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is satisfying function y=sin^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=sin^{-1} x is passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

For the function y=tan^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=tan^{-1} x is not passing through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

Hence, Option C is correct.

3 0
3 years ago
19, 36, 23, 42, 21, 33, 23, 24, 36, 42, 23, 37, 37, 33, 17
LekaFEV [45]

What is this suppose to mean

3 0
2 years ago
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