Consider the equation.
4(pr + 1) = 64
The value of x in terms of p is
The value of x when p is -5 is
Answer:
b.Experience-rating plan
Explanation:
Experience rating is a method of evaluating used by insurance providers to adjust premiums up or down. The rating reflects your previous loss experience. It is based on the presumption that your historical loss experience predicts your future loss experience. In other words, your future losses are likely to be similar to those you incurred in the past. The Experience Rating Plan is mandatory for all eligible insureds. Any action taken in any form to evade the application of an experience modification determined in accordance with this Plan is prohibited. The object of the Experience Rating Plan is to recognize the differences between individual insureds through the use of the individual insured's own loss experience. The experience rating process serves as a means of using a history of past losses to predict the future losses of an insured.
This is done by comparing the experience of an individual insured to the average insured in the same classification. Therefore, using the insured's past experience, the experience modification is determined by comparing the actual losses to expected losses. An insured with better than average experience will produce a credit experience modification factor, while an insured with worse than average experience will produce a debit experience modification factor. A credit experience modification factor, less than 1.00, results in a premium reduction. A debit experience modification factor, greater than 1.00, results in a premium increase. An experience modification factor of 1.00, or unity, does not change premium.
Answer: Malika's job starts in one month, so she will have one month without work. Therefore, the opportunity cost of moving herself is low during this month.
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Malika just got hired by Amazon to work in upper management and that she currently lives in South Carolina, and has to move to California for the job.
A good economic reason for her to move her personal belongings on her own rather than hiring someone else is Malika's job starts in one month, so she will have one month without work. Therefore, the opportunity cost of moving herself is low during this month.
Since her job will start in a month, that means that she can use the available time she has to move her personal belongings. Assuming, she has something else to do or she'll be busy and will be hard for her to move it on her own, then it'll be logical to request for someone to help her move it but in this case, she can move it herself as the opportunity cost is low.
Answer:
Zero based budgeting
Explanation:
Zero-based budgeting is a process of developing budget estimates by requiring managers to estimate sales, production, and other operating data as though operations were being initiated for the first time.
It is time consuming compared to other method of budgeting ( traditional).
Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a method of budgeting where income less expenditure is equal to zero.
It is a budgeting in which all expenses must be justified for each new period. It is detail-oriented.
Zero-based budgeting can be used to lower costs by avoiding blanket increases or decreases to a prior period's budget.
zero-based budgeting may be a rolling process done over several years.
Answer:
Chris paid $109.68 for his bond. Since he paid a premium for the bond, the YTM is lower than the coupon rate.
Explanation:
yield of Cheryl's bond is 6% since she purchased it at par and the bond's coupon is 6%
if Chris's bond yields 80% of Cheryl's, it will yield 6% x 0.8 = 4.8%
we can use the approximate yield to maturity formula to find the market price of Chris's bond:
2.4%(semiannual) = {3 + [(100 - MV)/20]} / [(100 + MV)/2]
0.024 x [(100 + MV)/2] = 3 + [(100 - MV)/20]
0.024 x (50 + 0.5MV) = 3 + 5 - 0.05MV
1.2 + 0.012MV = 8 - 0.05MV
0.062MV = 6.8
MV = 6.8 / 0.062 = 109.68
