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2 years ago

Another one! lol there is a lot of these

Mathematics

2 answers:

kakasveta [241]2 years ago

6 0

Add the numbers in the graph and then divide by how many numbers there are.

Lostsunrise [7]2 years ago

4 0

Hello!

To find the mean you add all the numbers and divide it by the amount of numbers you have.

4 + 4 + 4 + 5 + 5 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 9 = 55

Divide by the amount of numbers you have

55 / 10 = 5.5

The answer is 5.5

Hope this helps!

You might be interested in

In ten-pin bowling, the highest possible score in a single game is 300.

Natali [406]

Answer:

a) Is it possible for Fred to accomplish this? Yes

b) If it is possible, what score does he need in his next game? 293

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1

Let us represent the number of games Fred bowled to get an average of 177 = X

His total points scored in that game would be

177 × X

= 177X

To achieve an average of 178 for his next game,

The total number of points he scored was 199, hence that is represented as:

178 = 177X + 199/ X + 1

178(X + 1) = 177X + 199

178X + 178 = 177X + 199

178X - 177X = 199 - 178

X = 21

Hence, Fred bowled 21 games to achieve an average of 178

Therefore, the score he needs to have on the 23rd game is obtained as:

= (23 × 183) - (22 × 178) = 4209 - 3916 = 293

Therefore, it is possible for Fred to raise his average from 178 to 183 in a single game, but he must bowl 293 in his next game to do this.

5 0

3 years ago

Solve for r. 35r-21<-35r+19

Mnenie [13.5K]

Good morning ☕️

Answer:

$r < \frac{4}{7}$

Step-by-step explanation:

35r-21 < -35r+19

⇌ 35r + 35r < 19 + 21

⇌ 70r < 40

⇌ r < 40/70

⇌ r < 4/7

_________________________

5 0

3 years ago

An experiment consists of flipping a single coin followed by rolling a six-sided cube (a die).

Over [174]

Answer: $\frac{1}{12}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay, first, you want to find the probability of getting a head, which would be 1/2 because there are two options and we are only looking for one out of the two. Then, the probability of getting a 6 would be 1/6 because there is only one chance of getting a 6 and there are 6 options. Next, you would have to multiply both quantities to find out what the probability would be of getting both. So it would be $\frac{1}{2}$ × $\frac{1}{6}$ = $\frac{1}{12}$