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son4ous [18]
3 years ago
12

What is the key difference between target plan bonus and predetermined allocation​ bonus?

Business
1 answer:
Svetllana [295]3 years ago
6 0
<span>What is the key difference between target plan bonus and predetermined allocation​ bonus? Predetermined allocation bonuses are​ fixed; target plan bonuses are not.

Predetermined allocation bonus are a fixed rate and they are based on a total from the bonus pool of a company. The target plan bonus can increase or decrease with performance. 
</span>
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Which california governor was instrumental in changing the executive bureaucracy from a spoils system to a merit system?
WINSTONCH [101]

Republican Governor Hiram Johnson was the California governor who was instrumental in changing the executive bureaucracy from a spoils system to a merit system.

A spoils system refers to a system of patronage in which the victorious candidate or party in an election gives public offices to their supporters as reward and incentive.

It was a common phenomenon in the United States, until a civil service reform movement led to passage of the Pendleton Act of 1883, which instituted merit-based appointments to offices at the federal level.

Hiram Johnson was a former Governor of California between 1917 to 1945. He was credited with many progressive reforms, among which was ensuring the executive bureaucracy operated on the basis of merit and not political patronage.

To learn more about Hiram Johnson: brainly.com/question/8407551

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP ASAP!!! HAVE TO PASS THIS!! WILL MARK BRAINIEST!!! Which of the following is true of temp agencies?
Jet001 [13]

The third option is correct

8 0
3 years ago
A company purchased new furniture at a cost of $14,000 on september 30. the furniture is estimated to have a useful life of 8 ye
Lesechka [4]

Answer: The company will record a depreciation of $375  as depreciation.

We begin by calculating the depreciable value of the asset.

Depreciable Value = Purchase Price of the Asset - Salvage Value

Depreciable Value = 14,000 - 2,000 = 12,000

The depreciable value is $12,000.

The useful life of the asset is 8 years from the date of purchase.

So, the depreciation for one year will be \frac{Depreciable Value}{Useful Life}.

Hence the depreciation for one year is \frac{12000}{8} = 1500

Since the equipment was purchased at the end of September, we can only charge depreciation for 3 months on 31st December.

So, the depreciation expense will be \frac{1500}{12} * 3 = 375

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The company that you manage has invested $5 million in developing a new product, but the development is not quite finished. At a
Elis [28]

Answer:

The company should be willing to invest the cost of $3 million to complete the development of the new product.

Explanation:

First, the correct completion of the question

If it would cost $3 million to finish development and make the product, should you go ahead and do so? What is the most that you should pay to complete the development?

Answer

To determine the cost: It is important to critically consider which costs are already sunk and which are still to come.

First, and foremost, $5 million already invested into the new product represents a sunk cost or a cost that has already been spent. This means that to stop the project or continue the project ,either options will still mean that $5 million has been spend already. It will not affect the future decision.

Therefore, if you decide to stop the production, the cost of the entire project of development is already $5 million

However, if you decide to continue the project

Sunk Cost = $5 million

Cost of continuation = $3 million (This is current relevant cost to consider against the sales).

Expected Sales of the finished product = $4,500,000

Therefore $4,500,000- $3,000,000= $1,500,000

If stopped, the loss to the company is $5 million

If continued, removing the sunk cost, the company can still make a profit of $1,500,000 of the cost of continuation.

The company should finish development and make the product.

7 0
3 years ago
CVP computations. Garrett Manufacturing sold 410,000 units of its product for $68 per unit in 2017. Variable cost per unit is $6
Masteriza [31]

Answer:

a) 8 dollars

b) 1,640,000

2.-  It should be rejected as decreases operating income to 410,000 from 1,640,000

contribution margin: $14

operating income: $ 410,000

Explanation:

Sales \: Revenue - Variable \: Cost = Contribution \: Margin

68 - 60 = 8

b)

units sold x $8 contribution less fixed cost

410,000 x 8 - 1,640,000 = 1,640,000

2 contribution margin:

68 - 54 = 14

410,000 x 14 - 5,330,000 = 410,000

5 0
3 years ago
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