Answer:
On October 01, 2017
The amount actually borrowed that is $ 701,000 will be recorded as liability/note payable on october 01, 2017. The following accounting entry will be passed
Debit Cash Asset $ 701,000
Credit Note payable $ 701,000
Interest recognized from October 1 to December 31, 2017
The premium amount paid on redemption will be recorded as interest over the period of time. The interest amount is
Interest = 721,000 -701,000 = $ 20,000
So this above calculated expense will be recognized as an expense over loan period.
Answer:
The correct option is D
Labour budget = $1,974,175
Explanation:
The labour budget is the product of the standard labour cost per unit and the budgeted production in units
Labour budget = standard labour cost× production budget in unit
The production budget can bed determined by adjusting the sales budget for closing and opening inventories.
Production budget = Sales budget +closing inventory - opening inventory
Production budget = 39,000 + 100 -200 = 38,900 units
Labour budget = $14.50× 3.5× 38,900 = $1,974,175
Labour budget = $1,974,175
Answer:
$26,000 adverse variance
Explanation:
Fixed Overheads Volume Variance = Budgeted Overheads at Actual Output - Budgeted Fixed Overheads
= $1.30 x 60,000 hours - $1.30 x 80,000
= $78,000 - $104,000
= $26,000 adverse variance
The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $26,000 adverse variance
Prime rate is (a) the best interest rate that banks offer their most creditworthy customers.
A prime rate is decided by the bank to lend money to its customers where the credit giving is decided on the basis of the credit history and points on the customers formally known as the credit rate of investment.
It totally depends upon the allowance of credit by financial institutions and then the payment made by the loan taking customers within a stipulated time frame.
To learn more about prime rate here,
brainly.com/question/28235888
#SPJ1
Answer:
Should Marston Manufacturing Company accept or reject the project?
Marston C Company should reject the project because its expected return is lower than Division H's cost of capital.
Since the divisions' risk is so different, and probably their projects are also very different, the company should use different costs of capital to accept of reject the projects based on each division's cost of capital.
Imagine another situation where Division L is evaluating a project that yields 10%. If they used the company's WACC, then they should reject the project, but if they used the division's cost of capital, then they should accept the project (in this case I would recommend accepting it).
Explanation:
Division H's risk = 14%
Division L's risk = 8%
WACC = 11%
