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iren2701 [21]
3 years ago
13

Using a $ sign before a column label ________.

Business
1 answer:
Licemer1 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The alignment of the choices are off but here's the explanation for solving this question below;

Explanation:

Using a $ sign before a column label, keeps the reference to column fixed,

but allows the row reference to change. Generally, putting a dollar sign ($) before a column label or row label  puts an absolute reference to that respective column or row while keeping the other changing. For example;

In $C5, "C"  is the column reference while "5" is the row reference. Because there is $ sign before C, that column  will be fixed and the row will change

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How many years are required for an investment to double in value if it is appreciating at the rate of 9​% compounded​ continuous
Vesna [10]

Answer:

time required is 7.70 years

Explanation:

given data

interest rate = 9%

solution

we know with the compounded​ continuously rate r and time t amount is

A(t) = A(o) e^{rt}     .................1

and we have given amount is double so

A(t) = 2 A(o)

so from equation 1 put the value and we get here

2 A(o) = A(o) e^{rt}

ln(2) = 0.09 t

solve it we get time

time t = 7.70 years

so time required is 7.70 years

7 0
3 years ago
Quizlet, In a security review meeting, you are asked to calculate the single loss expectancy (SLE) of an enterprise building wor
sergiy2304 [10]

The formula that should be use to calculate the SLE will be SLE = 100,000,000 × 0.75

<h3>What is the Single-loss expectancy?</h3>

Single-loss expectancy is the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. This is related to risk management and risk assessment where the exposure factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost.

The Single Loss Expectancy is used for Risk Management and it is the expected monetary loss when a risk occurs.

The  Single Loss Expectancy is related to Asset Value a exposure Factor. The formula used to compute the SLE is single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) × Exposure Factor (EF)

In the given problem the asset value of the enterprise building is $100,000,000 & the exposure factor 75%.

So the formula used to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is

SLE = 100,000,000 × 0.75.

Learn more about single loss expectancy on:

brainly.com/question/17088011

#SPJ1

Complete question:

a. 100,000,000 * 0.75/.01

b. 100,000,000/100 * 0.75

c. 100,000,000/0.75 * 100

d. 100,000,000 * 0.75

7 0
2 years ago
More than two-thirds of business meetings are considered to be what
coldgirl [10]

Complete Question:

More than two-thirds of meetings are considered to be:

A. Highly engaging and productive

B. More effective than a well-worded email

C. Slow sometimes, but mostly entertaining

D. A waste of time

Answer:

D. A waste of time

Explanation:

This answer implies that the number of business meetings should be reduced.  Issues discussed at business meetings can be ironed out through other means of communication.  For example, emails can be used.  Instructions and other information can be passed to the team without necessarily holding meetings.  Teams can interact effectively and efficiently without holding face-to-face meetings.  Some meetings are not productive at all, as the head of the meeting still dominates the speeches instead of giving the team members a conducive environment to air their concerns and opinions and make effective suggestions that will improve business performance and outcomes.

3 0
4 years ago
Porter was unemployed for part of the year. porter received $35,000 of wages, $4,000 from a state unemployment compensation plan
Gre4nikov [31]
$41,000 Yes porters gross incomes
7 0
3 years ago
Calculating the Cost of Equity. Suppose stock in Lululemon Corporation has a beta of 0.80. The market risk premium is 10 percent
Elan Coil [88]

Answer:

Cost of equity capital can be found by the Capital asset pricing model:

Cost of capital

= Risk free rate + beta * market premium

= 2% + 0.8 * 10%

= 10%

Weighted Average Cost of Capital:

= (weight of debt * after tax cost of debt) + (weight of stock * cost of stock)

= (50% * 8% * ( 1 - 34%)) + (50% * 10%)

= 10.28%

5 0
3 years ago
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