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jolli1 [7]
4 years ago
14

Coca-Cola acquired its bottlers and created a national vertically integrated business operation in 2010. After spending 12.3 bil

lion USD to acquire Coca-Cola Enterprises, its largest bottling partner, it reversed course in 2015 and sold off all its bottling operations. This is an example of a failed diversification effort.True / False.
Business
2 answers:
Cloud [144]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

This is an example of a failed vertical integration, not failed diversification. Coca Cola generally doesn't produce any Coke itself, it mostly licenses it Coke production. It started to vertically integrate bottlers during the 2008-2010 financial crisis, since the largest Coke bottler in the world operated in Greece (it supplied Coke to most of Europe). After Greece collapsed, Coca Cola purchased the bottler and relocated its headquarters to Switzerland.

Since the bottlers themselves only sell Coke and related products (diet Coke, Coke zero, Fanta, Sprite, etc.) it cannot be considered a product diversification because no new product was added to Coca Cola's product line and no new market was served.

Svet_ta [14]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Coke tried to diversify into the bottling industry by acquiring their bottlers and in the process creating a vertically integrated business. However, 5 years later, they did find out how difficult it was and it led to a failed diversification effort when sold off their bottling operations. This was majorly due to the fact that the bottling business required too much capital investment and time. Capital investment and time that an already large enterprise like coca cola couldn't afford at that period. The initial aim was to have control over the whole production process, but soon after the diversification failed, they went back to producing just the concentrates.

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ThingOne Company has the following information available for the past year. They use machine hours to allocate overhead. Actual
frozen [14]

Answer:

the variable overhead efficiency variance is $1,840 unfavorable

Explanation:

The computation of the variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:

= Standard variable overhead rate × (standard hours - actual hours)

= $4.60 × (10,600 - 11,000)

= $1,840 unfavorable

Hence, the variable overhead efficiency variance is $1,840 unfavorable

As the standard hours would be less than the actual hours so it would be unfavorable variance

7 0
3 years ago
P&T Inc.
iVinArrow [24]

Answer:

A short-term inducement of value offered to arouse interest in buying a product or service

Explanation:

Sales promotion can be defined as a process of trying to get a potential customer to buy the product by persuading them. Sales promotion a short-term tactic used for the purpose of boosting sales. As a method of building long-term customer loyalty, it is barely suitable. Sales promotions are aimed at getting consumers interested in purchasing a product or service.

3 0
3 years ago
White Company has two departments, Cutting and Finishing.
GaryK [48]

Answer:

Cutting = $10.99 per machine hour

Finishing= $15.28 per direct labour hours.

Explanation:

The question requests the predetermined overhead rate for Cutting department and Finishing department

Step 1: What is the formula for the pre-determined overhead rate

For the Cutting Department

Predetermined Overhead rate= The total fixed manufacturing Overhead/ Total Machine Hours +Variable Manufacturing Overhead rate per machine hour.

= $390,000/$43,400) + $2

= $10.99 per machine hour

For the Finishing Department

Predetermined Overhead rate= The total fixed manufacturing Overhead/ Total Labour Hours +Variable Manufacturing Overhead rate per machine hour.

= $496,000/43,000) + $3.75

= $15.28 per direct labour hours.

7 0
4 years ago
​_____ are responsible for developing operational plans. select one:
adell [148]
Board of directors
€€€€
7 0
4 years ago
An increase in a levered firm’s tax rate will:
svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

B, decrease the firm's cost of capital

Explanation:

When the tax rate of a levered firm is increased, there is a decrease in the firm's cost of capital because the value of a levered firm is the sum of the market value of the firm's debt and its equity.

An increased tax rate means it has a greater debt and as such the firm's capital after settling tax debt is very reduced.

I hope this helps. Cheers.

4 0
3 years ago
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