Not sure if you mean to ask for the first order partial derivatives, one wrt x and the other wrt y, or the second order partial derivative, first wrt x then wrt y. I'll assume the former.
Or, if you actually did want the second order derivative,
![\dfrac{\partial^2}{\partial y\partial x}(2x+3y)^{10}=\dfrac\partial{\partial y}\left[20(2x+3y)^9\right]=180(2x+3y)^8\times3=540(2x+3y)^8](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdfrac%7B%5Cpartial%5E2%7D%7B%5Cpartial%20y%5Cpartial%20x%7D%282x%2B3y%29%5E%7B10%7D%3D%5Cdfrac%5Cpartial%7B%5Cpartial%20y%7D%5Cleft%5B20%282x%2B3y%29%5E9%5Cright%5D%3D180%282x%2B3y%29%5E8%5Ctimes3%3D540%282x%2B3y%29%5E8)
and in case you meant the other way around, no need to compute that, as
by Schwarz' theorem (the partial derivatives are guaranteed to be continuous because
is a polynomial).
Answer:
you can make 14 muffins
Step-by-step explanation:
To get this answer you first need to know that 1 cup makes 8 muffins. Next know that there's 1 3/4 cups of flour. Because you know that 1 cup makes 8 muffins you need to figure out how many muffins 3/4 a cup of flour can make. To do this you divide 8 by 4. Hence 8 divided by 4 is 2. So know you know that for every 1/4 cup you can make 2 muffins. Now since there's 3/4 cup of flour you then multiply 2 by 3 which is 6. Now you have to add 1 cup ( 8 muffins) to 3/4 cup ( 6 muffins ) of flour which then equals 14. You then get the answer , 1 3/4 cups of flour can make 14 muffins. Hope this helped ;)
Answer:
X=-1
Step-by-step explanation:
3x-6=-9
3x=-9+6
3x=-3
x=-1
The answer is 600,000,000
