Answer:
B) Ill only
Step-by-step explanation:
This is because y = arcsin x can be re-written as sin y = x, We then differentiate sin y = x implicitly with respect to z to obtain
d(siny)/dz = dx/dz
(cosy)dy/dz = dx/dz
dy/dz = (1/cosy)dx/dz
False because I looked it up online
(-3,-1) , (3,4), (5,3) hope this helps! ;)
well I can’t see the statements but I would say it is a right triangle
