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3 years ago

If m is a positive integer, what is the least value of m for which 225 is a factor of 120m? Please explain your answer

Mathematics

2 answers:

frutty [35]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

C) 15

Step-by-step explanation:

120 times 15 equalls 1800

1800 divide by 225 equals 8

Dafna1 [17]3 years ago

3 0

The correct answer would be C) 15.

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If a multiple-choice test consists of 5 questions, each with 4 possible answers of which only 1 is correct, (a) in how many diff

Papessa [141]

Answer:

(a) 1024 ways

(b) 243 ways

Step-by-step explanation:

When answers are independent, the total number of ways all questions can be answered is the product of the number of ways each question can be answered.

The first question can have one answer 4 ways. The second question can be answered 4 ways for each of the ways the first question was answered. That is, the two questions can be answered 4×4 = 16 ways. Similarly, each additional question multiplies the number of ways the questions can be answered by 4.

The 5 questions can be answered 4×4×4×4×4 = 4^5 = 1024 ways.

There are 3 ways to answer the first question incorrectly. Each additional question can be answered incorrectly 3 ways for each of the ways previous questions were answered. The total number of ways all questions can be answered incorrectly is ...

3^5 = 243

A student can answer all questions wrong in 243 different ways.

5 0

1 year ago

g An urn contains 10 balls: 4 red and 6 blue. A second urn contains 16 red balls and an unknown number of blue balls. A single b

Fed [463]

Answer:

Therefore the of blue in the second urn is 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let second urn contain x number of blue ball .

Urn Red Ball Blue Ball Total Ball

1 4 6 10

2 16 x 16+x

Getting a red ball from first urn is $P(R_1)=\frac{\textrm {Number of red ball}}{\textrm {Total ball}}$ $=\frac{4}{10}$

Getting a blue ball from first urn is $P(B_1)=\frac{\textrm {Number of blue ball}}{\textrm {Total ball}}$ $=\frac {6}{10}$

Getting a red ball from second urn is $P(R_2)=\frac{\textrm {Number of red ball}}{\textrm {Total ball}}$ $=\frac{16}{16+x}$

Getting a blue ball from second urn is $P(B_2)=\frac{\textrm {Number of blue ball}}{\textrm {Total ball}}$ $=\frac {x}{16+x}$

Getting two red balls from first and second urn is $=\frac{4}{10}\times \frac{16}{16+x}$

$=\frac{32}{5(16+x)}$

Getting two blue balls from first and second urn is $=\frac{6}{10}\times \frac{x}{16+x}$

$=\frac{3x}{5(16+x)}$

The probability that both balls are the same in color is $=\frac{32}{5(16+x)}+\frac{3x}{5(16+x)}$

Given that the probability that both balls are the same in color is 0.44.

According to the problem,

$\frac{32}{5(16+x)}+\frac{3x}{5(16+x)}=0.44$

$\Rightarrow \frac{32+3x}{5(16+x)} =0.44$

$\Rightarrow \frac {32+3x}{(80+5x)} =0.44$

$\Rightarrow 32+3x =0.44(80+5x)$

$\Rightarrow 32+3x =35.2 +2.2x$

$\Rightarrow 3x -2.2 x= 35.2 -32$

$\Rightarrow 0.8x= 3.2$

$\Rightarrow x = 4$

Therefore the of blue in the second urn is 4.

5 0

3 years ago

Long division by single digit <br>

Sauron [17]

Answer:

Here's an example of long division:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's just do 48 divided by 6. First you have to multiply the 6 (the number we're dividing with) until it reaches the closest to 48 (6 x 8 = 48). Now you subtract 48 from 48, and you get zero. So 48 divided by 6 would be 0.

Hope this answers your question!

7 0

3 years ago

Match each fraction with its equivalent decimal number.

Oksana_A [137]

Changing a fraction to its decimal form can be done by long division method. Dividing the denominator by its numerator will change the fraction into decimal form. Alternatively, you can use a calculator to do that for you. Below are the fractions with their decimal forms listed:

1.) 2/5 = 0.4 (D)
2.) 7/20 = 0.35 (A)
3.) 3/25 = 0.12 (C)
4.) 7/10 = 0.7 (B)

6 0

3 years ago

If 4c-2=c then 12c= what ??

Nikolay [14]

Answer:

Maybe 0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago