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Nikitich [7]
3 years ago
11

In conducting its SWOT analysis, a baseball team notes that most of its players are among the best in the world and that their c

oach was a distinguished major-league player. Which part of the SWOT analysis is this information pertinent to?A) Strengths
B) Weaknesses
C) Opportunities
D) Threats
Business
1 answer:
mamaluj [8]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A) Strengths

Explanation:

Having one of the best teams or a coach as the  distinguished major-league player is the strength of the TEAM. This is the internal and growing strengths  of the team players.This is a learning strength and can be used in every possible way to improve results or outputs. This is neither a weakness nor a threat.

Having the best players is the uniqueness of the team and having a coach as the  distinguished major-league player is the strong management of the team where expert handles training.

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The most important tax rate for determining an individual's incentive to work is the _____ tax rate.
zheka24 [161]

The most important tax rate for determining an individual's incentive to work is the margnal tax rate.

<h3>What is a tax?</h3>

Tax refers to the compulsory financial charge or levies on an individual or entities by governments in almost every country of the world.

Tax is a tariff or duty that is the revenue of the government which is levied by it on the income of the workers, business profits, and also added to goods and sevices.

A tax rate is the rate or a percentage at which an individual or corporation is taxed. Basically, there are two types direct taxes and indirect taxes.

Learn more about tax here:-

brainly.com/question/16423331

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
Shelli's Ski Super has sales of $670, net fixed assets of $210, total assets of $305, and current assets of $25. What is the tot
Troyanec [42]

Answer:

2.20

Explanation:

The formula to compute the total assets turnover ratio is shown below:

Total asset turnover = (Sales revenue ÷ Total assets)

                                   = ($670 ÷ $305)

                                  = 2.20

We simply divide the sales revenue by the total assets, so that the total asset turnover ratio can be computed

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

5 0
4 years ago
Prince Paper has budgeted the following amounts for its next fiscal​ year: Total fixed expenses $ 900 comma 000 Selling price pe
stepan [7]

Answer:

The effect on net operating income would be an increase of $137,900

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price $85

Variable expenses per unit $ 35

If Price Paper spends an additional $12,100 on​ advertising, sales volume should increase by 3,000 units.

To calculate the effect on income, we need to determine the incremental total contribution, and deduct the incremental fixed costs:

Effect on income= 3,000*(85 - 35) - 12,100= $137,900

8 0
4 years ago
One way products can be categorized is by brand.<br> O a) True<br> Ob) False
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

A. True.

Explanation:

One of the direct implementation for this categorization can be seen if you go to your supermarket. Supermarkets tend to categorize their product in a way that resulted in the most sales.

In order to achieve this, they tend to lined up the most popular brands on a place that's close to costumers' eye level on the shelf. The less popular brand will be place on top or lower part of the shelf that's a little bit harder to see.

4 0
3 years ago
You expect to receive a payment of £1,000,000 in British pounds after six months. The pound is currently worth $1.60 (i.e., £1 $
zhannawk [14.2K]

Answer:

a) Expected payment in dollars is $1,600,000

b) $1,560,000

c) Loss is -$250,000

d) Loss would be $40,000

e) If after hedging the price falls to $1.35, the contract amount would still not change.

f) If after hedging the price rises to $1.80, the contract amount would still not change.

g) Loss would be $200,000

Explanation:

You expect to receive a payment of £1,000,000 in British pounds after six months.

The pound is currently worth $1.60, i.e., £1 = $1.60

Six-month future price is $1.56, i.e., £1 = $1.56

a) At £1 = $1.60 current price, expected payment of £1,000,000 in dollars

= £1,000,000 × $1.60 = $1,600,000

b) At £1 = $1.56 future price, expected payment of £1,000,000 in dollars

= £1,000,000 × $1.56 = $1,560,000

c) If after six months, £1 = $1.35, expected payment of £1,000,000 in dollars

= £1,000,000 × $1.35 = $1,350,000

Therefore, loss =  $1,350,000 - $1,600,000  = -$250,000

d) Present price at $1.60 delivery = $1,600,000

Future price at $1.56 delivery = $1,560,000

Loss = $1,600,000 - $1,560,000 = $40,000

g) Present price at $1.60 delivery = $1,600,000

Future price at $1.80 = $1,800,000

Loss = $1,800,000 - $1,600,000 = $200,000

8 0
4 years ago
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