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3 years ago

Why an investor might choose to have less than 20% holding in a company if they could have more?

1 answer:

3 0

The simple answer here is you never want to over commit any part of your portfolio. Every single successful investor has a wide variety of investment holdings. This is known as diversification. If you place all of your "eggs in one basket," so to speak, if that investment were to play against you, your losses may be much higher than anticipated or often irrecoverable. With a diverse portfolio, when one small portion of your investment strategy fails, you can count on other, more successful aspect to make up the difference.

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Why is tikto* a cool app

sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

Cause its addictive (at least for me)

Explanation:

I dont know why, Ill literaly go on and 30 minutes later Ill realize that ive only been scrolling and stuff.

4 0

3 years ago

Which of the following are examples of demonstrating professional behavior in the workplace? Check all of the boxes that apply.

AfilCa [17]

Answer:

1, 2, 4, 5, 6

Explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Kendra Enterprises has never paid a dividend. Free cash flow is projected to be $80,000 and $100,000 for the next 2 years, respe

Lena [83]

Answer:

$856,376.30

Explanation:

What is the terminal, or horizon, value of operations?

2 years, FCF 1 = 80,000, FCFC 2 = 100,000, Growth rate= 5%, WACC = 16%

==> 100,000*(1+0.05)/(0.16-0.05)

==> 100,000*(1.05/0.11)

==> 100,000*(9.545454(

==> 954,545

Calculating the value of Kendra's operations.

Years Cash-flows PVF at 16% Present value

1 800,000 0.86206 68964.80

2 105,000 0.74316 78031.80

2 954,545 0.74316 709379.70

Total value 856,376.30

8 0

3 years ago

Please answer quick

Kitty [74]

It is easier to stick to a budget if you can spend some money on things you enjoy.

8 0

3 years ago

At the beginning of the year, a company predicts total overhead costs of $690,900. The company applies overhead using machine ho

nignag [31]

Answer:

$9,400

Explanation:

We know,

predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = $\frac{total overhead cost}{total machine hour}$

Given,

Total overhead cost = $690,900

Total machine hours = 1,470

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = $\frac{690,900}{1,470}$

predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = $470

When we use a separate job, the overhead cost will be = predetermined overhead rate × total hours used by the job.

The amount of overhead should be applied to Job 65A if that job uses 20 machine hours during January = 20 hours × $470 = $9,400

6 0

3 years ago