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Elena L [17]
3 years ago
6

Northwest Fur Co. started the year with $92,000 of merchandise inventory on hand. During the year, $425,000 in merchandise was p

urchased on account with credit terms of 1/15, n/45. All discounts were taken. Northwest paid freight-in charges of $7,000. Merchandise with an invoice amount of $5,000 was returned for credit. Cost of goods sold for the year was $372,000. What is ending inventory
Business
1 answer:
Artyom0805 [142]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$ 142,800.00  

Explanation:

The ending inventory can be computed by rearranging the cost of goods sold formula:

cost of goods sold=Beginning inventory+net purchases-ending inventory

ending inventory=beginning inventory+net purchases-cost of goods sold

beginning inventory is $92,000

Net purchases=purchases-discount+freight-in charges-purchase return

net purchases=$425,000-($425,000*1%)+$7000-($5000*99%)=$422,800.00  

cost of goods sold is $372,000

ending inventory=$92,000+$422,800-$372,000=$ 142,800.00  

You might be interested in
Scrumptious Snacks Inc. manufactures three types of snack foods: tortilla chips, potato chips, and pretzels. The company has bud
beks73 [17]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the number of processing hours:</u>

Processing hours= (0.25*3,000) + (0.1*6,000) + (0.3*3,500)

Processing hours= 750 + 600 + 1,050

Processing hours= 2,400

<u>Now, we can calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 207,000 / 2,400

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate=$86.25 per processing hour

<u>To allocate overhead, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Tortilla chips= 86.25*75= 64,687.5

Potato chips= 600*86.25= 51,750

Pretzels= 86.25*1,050= 90,562.5

<u>Finally, the unitary cost:</u>

Tortilla chips= 64,687.5 / 3,000= $21.56

Potato chips= 51,750 / 6,000= $8.63

Pretzels= 90,562.5 / 3,500= $25.88

8 0
3 years ago
As a marketing manager for Kitch-It-Tools, Jim is frustrated with the way his organization markets their kitchen utensils. Curre
Rashid [163]

Answer:

C. Mass Marketing

Explanation:Mass Marketing is a type of marketing where the target is to get the connect with a large number of customers or consumers as possible. Mass Marketing is done through mass media and other marketing channels to ensure that the greatest number of persons are reached to guarantee that the company sale a larger Volume of products or services, this type of marketing has been adopted by many multinational companies.

6 0
3 years ago
Bramble Company purchased a new van for floral deliveries on January 1, 2018. The van cost $66000 with an estimated life of 5 ye
fgiga [73]

Answer:

$42,240

Explanation:

The computation of the balance of the Accumulated Depreciation account at the end of 2019 is as follows;

But before that the depreciation rate is

= 1 ÷ 5 × 2

= 40%

For the first year, the depreciation expense is

= $66,000 × 40%

= $26,400

Now for the 2019, the depreciation expense is

= ($66,000  - $26,400) × 40%

= $15,840

Now the accumulated depreciation is

= $26,400 + $15,840

= $42,240

6 0
2 years ago
In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0
3 years ago
Lanni Products is a start-up computer software development firm. It currently owns computer equipment worth $30,000 and has cash
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

A-2 Ratio of real Assets to Total Assets = 0.3

B-2 Ratio of real Assets to Total Assets= 1

C-2 Ratio of real Assets to Total Assets= 0.2

The company has low ratio at the start , increases to full when producing and then again decreases.

Explanation:

The balance sheet after Lanni accepts the Bank Loan. The cash increases and so does the liability increases.

Lanni Products

Balance Sheet

Assets                                                Liabilities & Shareholders' Equity

Cash $ 70,000                                      Bank loan $ 50,000

<u>Computers $30,000                             Shareholders' equity 50,000</u>

<u>Total $      100,000                                                           Total $ 100,000</u>

<u />

A-2 Ratio of real Assets to Total Assets

Real Assets = $ 30,000

Total Assets = $ 100,000

Ratio = 30,000/100,000 = 0.3

B-1

Lanni Products

Balance Sheet

Assets                                                Liabilities & Shareholders' Equity

Software $ 70,000                                      Bank loan $ 50,000

<u>Computers $30,000                             Shareholders' equity 50,000</u>

<u>Total $      100,000                                                           Total $ 100,000</u>

<u />

The software costs $ 70,000. The Balance sheet is as given above and the cash will be replaced by the software.

B-2  Ratio of real Assets to Total Assets

Real Assets = $ 100,000

Total Assets = $ 100,000

Ratio = 100,000/100,000 = 1.0

C-1 The share given are calculated ( 1500 *80= $ 120,000) . And after it accepts the payment the share holder's equity increases and the assets as well.

Lanni Products

Balance Sheet

Assets                                                Liabilities & Shareholders' Equity

Shares  $ 120,000                                      Bank loan $ 50,000

( 1500 *80)

<u>Computers $30,000                             Shareholders' equity 100,000</u>

<u>Total $      150,000                                                           Total $ 150,000</u>

C-2 Ratio of real Assets to Total Assets

Real Assets = $ 30,000

Total Assets = $ 150,000

Ratio = 30,000/150,000 = 0.2

6 0
3 years ago
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