Answer:
The market value of equity should be used.
Explanation:
Their are only two methods which are book value method or market value method. The market value method is preferred because the reason is that the market value gives the more accurate numerical value that the securities of the company will give which is the required rate of return to its investors. However historic cost data is not useful because the value of stock and bonds keeps changing every second in the stock exchange and their is the risk that the WACC calculated is inaccurate which implies that the project appraised is also incorrect.
So the best way to calculate the weighted cost of capital is that we should use the fair value of the securities.
Answer:
E
Explanation:
In this question, we are told to state what the reaction of Koka and Zola will be;
Kukla and Zola both like the proposal. As according to the given opportunity cost for Kukla (3 rugs per every 4 tables) she can get 1.5 rugs for 2 tables .But with the offer made now she can get 2 rugs for giving 2 tables.
Given the opportunity cost for Zola ( 2 tables per every 3 rugs ) she must give 3 rugs for getting 2 tables. But with the offer made she can now get 2 tables for giving away only 2 rugs .
So both Kukla and Zola are happy with the offer.
Answer:
a. Common stock acquired by the company in the open market & recorded as negative equity
Explanation:
A stock which is buy back from the market at market rate issued by the company. It reduces the total outstanding shares of the company. It is the difference of Number of share issued and Number of share outstanding. Its account is consider as contra equity account. So the correct option is a. Common stock acquired by the company in the open market & recorded as negative equity.
Answer:
4.76%
Explanation:
The requirement in this question is determining the discount rate which gives the same present value in both cases since discount rates discount future cash flows to present value terms.
PV of a pertuity=annual cash flow/discount rate
PV of a pertuity=$17,000/r
PV of ordinary annuity=annual cash flow*(1-(1+r)^-n/r
PV of ordinary annuity=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r
$17,000/r=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r
multiply boths side by r
17000=30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18
divide both sides by 30000
17000/30000=1-(1+r)^-18
0.566666667=1-(1+r)^-18
by rearraging the equation we have the below
(1+r)^-18=1-0.566666667
(1+r)^-18=0.433333333
divide indices on both sides by -18
1+r=(0.433333333)^(1/-18)
1+r=1.047554315
r=1.047554315-1
r=4.76%
Answer:
D) 4 billion British pounds
Explanation:
Trade balance or balance of trade can be defined as the difference between a country's export and import at a particular period of time.
It could be a deficit or surplus.
Deficit trade balance refers to when the export of a country is less than it's import. This means more products are imported that exported.
Surplus trade balance refers to when export of a country is more than the import.
Import is the bringing in of goods from a foreign country. This means a particular country purchase goods from another country.
Export is the sending out of goods to a foreign country. That is the selling of goods to another country.
Trade balance= Export- Import
=14 billion British pounds- 10 billion British pounds
=4 billion British pounds
The trade balance that occurs here is surplus trade balance where export is more than import.
