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maria [59]
3 years ago
7

-2/3+(-1/6) -1/4+(-3/8) -1/4+(-1/2) Need answers to all of them!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
miss Akunina [59]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Vjn

Oksi-84 [34.3K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

yeah aight

Step-by-step explanation:

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For a certain​ candy, 20​% of the pieces are​ yellow, 15​% are​ red, 20​% are​ blue, 20​% are​ green, and the rest are brown. ​a
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question we are given the percentages of each of the types of candies in the bag except for brown. Since the sum of all the percentages equals 75% and brown is the remaining percent then we can calculate that brown is (100-75 = 25%) 25% of the bag. Now we can show the probabilities of getting a certain type of candy by placing the percentages over the total percentage (100%).

  • Brown: \frac{25}{100}
  • Yellow or Blue: \frac{20}{100} +\frac{20}{100} = \frac{40}{100}  ....add the numerators
  • Not Green:  \frac{80}{100}.... since the sum of all the rest is 80%
  • Stiped:  \frac{25}{100} .... there are 0 striped candies.

Assuming the <u><em>ratios/percentages</em></u> of the candies stay the same having an infinite amount of candy will not affect the probabilities. That being said in order to calculate consecutive probability of getting 3 of a certain type in a row we have to multiply the probabilities together. This is calculated by multiplying the numerators with numerators and denominators with denominators.

  • 3 Browns: \frac{25*25*25}{100*100*100} = \frac{15,625}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.5625}{100}

  • the 1st and 3rd are red while the middle is any. We multiply 15% * (total of all minus red which is 85%) * 15% like so.

\frac{15*85*15}{100*100*100} = \frac{19,125}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.9125}{100}

  • None are Yellow: multiply the percent of all minus yellow three times.

\frac{80*80*80}{100*100*100} = \frac{512,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{51.2}{100}

  • At least 1 green: multiply the percent of green by 100% twice, since the other two can by any

\frac{20*100*100}{100*100*100} = \frac{200,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{20}{100}

4 0
2 years ago
Round 24,347 to the nearest thousand.
hodyreva [135]

Answer:

24000

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following man did not help write the federalism papers
IrinaVladis [17]

I believe the correct answer is D Aarron Burr

4 0
3 years ago
Help me please I dont get this
inessss [21]

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a rectangle = Length × Width

Width of the large rectangle = a

Length of the large rectangle = (2 + 3 + 4)

Therefore:

Area of the large rectangle = a(2 + 3 + 4)

6 0
3 years ago
What is the value of x? Round your answer to the nearest tenth if necessary.
katen-ka-za [31]

So to start off:

The equation you will want to use for the hypotenuse is

A (squared) + B (squared) = C (squared)

So you will want to fill in the equation like so:

7(7) + 4(4) = C (squared)

So now that you have your information filled out, put it all together!

49 + 16 = 65

Now don't forget that the 65 is SQUARED!

You will want to use the SQUARE ROOT method to help with that!

So what you will want to do is think of the numbers that are PERFECT SQUARES.

A perfect square consist of

Here is the list of perfect squares 1-10:

1 x 1 = 1

2 x 2 = 4

3 x 3 = 9

4 x 4 = 16

5 x 5 = 25

6 x 6 = 36

7 x 7 = 49

8 x 8 = 64

9 x 9 = 81

So look closely at these perfect squares, Do you see where 65 will lie?

It will lie between 8 and 9.

So you will do the square root now.

√65

The answer will come out as:

<span>8.06225775</span>

<span>You will then round it to the nearest tenths place (one after the decimal)</span>

You will look at the two numbers behind the decimal which is

0.6.

As you know,(If you round the tenths place), if the number in the hundredths is 5 or HIGHER. It will round up the number in the tenths place to 1.

So as we know 6 is higher than 5 so your answer would be:

8.1

I hope this helped! :)

>^.^<

(      )~


3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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