For a monopolist b. price is above marginal revenue.
<h3>What Is Marginal Revenue? </h3>
Marginal revenue can be regarded as increase in revenue which is been gotten from the sale of one additional unit of output.
As a monopolist that is the the only seller in the market, then their marginal revenue is usually above price because they don't have a competitor that is close enough.
Read more on Marginal Revenue here:
brainly.com/question/12231343
#SPJ11
Answer:
3.79 years
Explanation:
In the payback, we analyze in how many years the invested amount is recovered. The computation is shown below:
In year 0 = $117,200
In year 1 = $53,000
In year 2 = $21,500
In year 3 = $26,500
In year 4 = $20,500
In year 5 = $23,000
If we sum the first 3 year cash inflows than it would be $101,000
Now we deduct the $101,000 from the $117,200 , so the amount would be $16,200 as if we added the fourth year cash inflow so the total amount exceed to the initial investment. So, we deduct it
And, the next year cash inflow is $20,500
So, the payback period equal to
= 3 years + $16,200 ÷ $20,500
= 3.79 years
In 3.79 years, the invested amount is recovered.
Answer
<u>A bubble is a phenomena in investing that occurs when investors increase their demand in assets so much that they cause the price to move to a value beyond accurate reflection of its actual worthiness</u>. When a bubble happens, <u>the prices of stock will fall rapidly</u>.When there is increase in the share price of stock rapidly caused by individual-perpetuating, the share value can rise beyond asset value making investor to withdraw their money faster because <u>supply will exceed demand and cause share price to fall.</u>
An increase demand on assets by investors will make the price to increase beyond rational economic value. The real worth of the stock will now be determined by firm’s performance. Investing in bubble can appear to last forever, but because they are formed by self-perpetuated reasons, they eventually fall and the money that was invested into them is lost. In such cases, investors would run to withdraw their money and avoid the loss of fall in share prices.
Answer:
C. Responsiveness of quantity demanded to a percentage change in income.
Explanation:
Income elasticity is defined as the responsiveness of the quantity of a good demanded by an individual as his income changes, all other factors being constant.
Mathematically it is calculated as percentage change in quantity demanded divided by percentage change in income.
Income elasticity is used to find out if a good is a necessity or a luxury good.
The demand for goods that are a necessity does not change with a change in income.
However demand for a luxury good increases as income increases and vice versa