The inventory has to be recorded separately to each item and this will generally result in the lowest inventory amount.
<u>Explanation:</u>
LCM- the Lower of Cost which is also called as Market rule is the theory for valuating the inventory in accounting. According to the LCM rule, in a business the cost of inventory must be recorded at lower cost (it can be either the current market price or the original cost)
Reason for recording at lower cost:
Aggregating the items results in the incorporation of some items at amounts greater than LCM.
Example:
If product X (cost = 2 dollars, market = 1 dollar) and product Y (cost = 3 dollars, market = 4 dollars) are aggregated for LCM, the inventory measurement will be 5 dollars. If the rule is applied separately to both the products, the LCM measurement will be 4 dollars.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": job specification.
Explanation:
Job specification files include all the positions within a firm, the duties of the individuals in charge, and the profile of the professional who will cover those activities. Certifications, qualifications, and skills are described in detail in those documents that serve as a guide for Human Resources (HR) representatives at the moment of carrying out a selection process.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": The convenience yield is always positive or zero.
Explanation:
The convenience yield reflects the premium of possessing an asset instead of one of its derivates or contracts. This situation arises in front of inverted markets, where holding the asset itself may bring more profits than purchasing a derivate of the same asset.
<em>The convenience yield tends to be positive or zero because the prices of assets cannot fall below zero. In other words, they are not negative.</em>
Answer:
b. Liabilities assumed, at book value.
Explanation:
International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) and International Accounting Standards (IAS) require everything (Assets, Liabilities and Non-controlling interest) to be measured at the fair market value, the amount a third-party would pay on the open market, at the time of acquisition — the date that the acquirer took control of the target company.
Answer:
A. $19,034
Explanation:
The computation of the present value for 20 years cash flow is shown below:
For the First 10 years
Given that
Payment for first 10 years = $2,000
Discount rate = 11%
Now the present value is
= $2000 ÷ 1.11 + $2,000 ÷ 1.11^2 +...........+ $2,000 ÷1.11^10
= 11,778.46402 ..............(1)
For the Next 10 years
Given that
Payment for next 10 years = 3,500
Discount rate = 11%
Now the present value is
= $3,500 ÷ 1.11 + $3,500 ÷ 1.11^2 +...........+ $3,500 ÷ 1.11^10
= 20,612.312
So, today present value is
= $20,612.312 ÷ 1.1110
= 7,259.339 ...........................(2)
Now
Total present value is
= $7,259.339 + $11,778.46402
= $19,034
