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KiRa [710]
3 years ago
10

Determine whether the statement is true or false. -3 ≥ -15

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sauron [17]3 years ago
4 0

let's recall that, on the number line, for the positive side, the farther from zero, the larger the number, thus 100 is a much larger number than 10.

now, on the negative side of the number line, the farther from zero, the smaller the number, thus -1 is much much larger number than -1,000,000,000.

is -3 ≥ -15, is -3 larger or equals to -15, well, certainly is not equal but is certainly larger, yes.

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WILL MARK YOU BRAINLIEST !!!!
liq [111]

Answer:

\overline {PM} \cong \overline {ON} because they are opposite sides of a parallelogram.

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, let us have a look at the definition of a parallelogram.

<em>A parallelogram is a closed 4 sided figure (i.e. a quadrilateral) made up with two pairs of straight lines such that the two pairs are parallel and equal to each other.</em>

<em></em>

For example, let us consider a quadrilateral ABCD as attached in the diagram in answer area.

The two pair of lines are:

AB,  DC and BC, AD

For ABCD to be a parallelogram, the lines

AB and DC must be parallel to each other and AB = DC

AND

BC and AD must be parallel to each other and BC = DA

------------------------------

In the given question, we are given that the quadrilateral MNOP is a parallelogram.

The two pairs opposite lines are OP, NM and PM, ON.

As per the definition of a parallelogram,

OP and NM must be <em>parallel and equal </em>to each other.

AND

PM and ON must be <em>parallel and equal </em>to each other.

\therefore \overline {PM} \cong \overline {ON}.

Hence proved.

6 0
3 years ago
A year is a leap year if it is divisible by 4. but if the year is divisible by 100, it is a leap year only when it is also divis
KIM [24]
What is the question that you are asking?
3 0
3 years ago
How much money is 1/2 of $11.00<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20" id="TexFormula1" title=" \frac
never [62]

$5.5

Step-by-step explanation:

½ × 11.00

5.5

Hope this helps. Have a good day!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
2280÷60 how to work it out
Arturiano [62]
You could do 228/6 = 38 

2280/60 = 38

hope this helps you
4 0
3 years ago
Please anybody help me in this
Simora [160]

Answer:

<h2>a) 0.38</h2><h2>b) 0.62</h2><h2>c) 0.78</h2><h2>d) 0.03</h2><h2>e) 0.02</h2><h2>f) 0.62</h2><h2>g) 0.38</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

Probability of a owner to be moved = \frac{total owner}{total Americans} = \frac{14.8}{39} = 0.379 ≅ 0.38

b)

Probability of a renter to be moved = \frac{total renters}{total Americans} = \frac{24.2}{39} = 0.62

c)

Probability of a person who moved in the same state = \frac{Persons who moved to the same state}{Total Americans} = \frac{30.4}{39} = 0.779 ≅ 0.78

d)

Probability of a person who moved to a different country = \frac{Total moved to different country}{Total Americans} = \frac{1.3}{39} = 0.033 ≅0.03

e)

Probability of a owner who moved to a different country = \frac{Owners that moved to different country}{Total people who moved to different country} = \frac{0.3}{14.8} = 0.02

f)

Probability of a renter moving in the same state = \frac{Renter that moved in the same state}{Total persons moved in the same state} = \frac{18.7}{30.4} = 0.615 ≅ 0.62

g)

Probability of an owner moved to different state = \frac{Owners moved in different state}{Total moved in different state} = \frac{2.8}{7.3} ≅0.38

3 0
3 years ago
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