The question is set up in the following way:
2] 3 0 4 -32
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Here the 2 is from when x-2 is set equal to zero and then solved for x, the rest is from the the number being divided with zero taking the place of the x^2.
Then the following happens:
2] 3 0 4 -32
6 12 32
______________
3 6 16 0
Here the following happens:
1. We drop down the first coefficient, which is 3
2. We take this coefficient and multiply it by the two in the corner and get 6.
3. We place this six under the second coefficient (0) and add them together and get 6.
4. We take this 6 and multiply it by the two in the corner and get 12.
5. We take this 12 and put it under the third coefficient (4), add them together and get 16.
6. We take the 16 and multiply it by the two in the corner and get 32.
7. We take the 32 and place in under the forth coefficient and get zero.
This gives us the coefficients of the final answer in the order 3, 6 and 16 with no remaninders which gives us 3x^2+6x+16.<span />
Hello,
y=2
Answer C
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Hello there!

Add 5x to both sides:

Add 14 to both sides:

Now divide both sides by 8:

In our last step, we will simplify 16/8:

Hope this helps!

We can find the number of extra clubs in the deck from the given probability, since the probability of drawing a diamond and a club is

but this would imply that

, which suggests we're taking 4 clubs out of the original deck and contradicts the problem statement that there are "too many clubs".
Perhaps the question is providing the probability of drawing a diamond, THEN a club, or vice versa. In that case, we have

and solving gives

, which makes more sense. Then the number of extra spades in the deck must be 2.