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Bas_tet [7]
4 years ago
11

Math question down below

Mathematics
2 answers:
kobusy [5.1K]4 years ago
5 0
Converting to improper fractions
27/8 • 13/3
9/8•13
=117/8
=14 5/8
SpyIntel [72]4 years ago
3 0
3 3/8 · 4 1/3

To make this easier to solve, let's change the mixed numbers into improper fractions. This is done by multiplying the denominator (8) by the whole number (3) and then adding that to the numerator (3), keeping the denominator the same. Do the same thing with the second fraction.

27/8 × 13/3
Now you can multiply.
(27 × 13)/(8 × 3)
351/24

Now think of how many times 24 can go into 351. You can find this out by plugging it into a calculator. You should get 14.625. Since we need a whole number though, round down to 14.
14 × 24 = 336
This means that there will be 15 left over.
So far the fraction looks like this:
14 15/24

The last thing you need to do is simplify. A number that can go into both 15 and 24 is 3, so divide them by that.
14 5/8

The answer is 
D. 14 5/8
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Answer:

a) k=6

b) P(Y1 ≤ 3/4, Y2 ≥ 1/2) =  9/16

Step-by-step explanation:

a) if

f (y1, y2) = k(1 − y2), 0 ≤ y1 ≤ y2 ≤ 1,  0, elsewhere

for f to be a probability density function , has to comply with the requirement that the sum of the probability of all the posible states is 1 , then

P(all possible values) = ∫∫f (y1, y2) dy1*dy2 = 1

then integrated between

y1 ≤ y2 ≤ 1 and 0 ≤ y1 ≤ 1

∫∫f (y1, y2) dy1*dy2 =  ∫∫k(1 − y2) dy1*dy2 = k  ∫ [(1-1²/2)- (y1-y1²/2)] dy1 = k  ∫ (1/2-y1+y1²/2) dy1) = k[ (1/2* 1 - 1²/2 +1/2*1³/3)-  (1/2* 0 - 0²/2 +1/2*0³/3)] = k*(1/6)

then

k/6 = 1 → k=6

b)

P(Y1 ≤ 3/4, Y2 ≥ 1/2) = P (0 ≤Y1 ≤ 3/4, 1/2 ≤Y2 ≤ 1) = p

then

p = ∫∫f (y1, y2) dy1*dy2 = 6*∫∫(1 − y2) dy1*dy2 = 6*∫(1 − y2) *dy2 ∫dy1 =

6*[(1-1²/2)-((1/2) - (1/2)²/2)]*[3/4-0] = 6*(1/8)*(3/4)=  9/16

therefore

P(Y1 ≤ 3/4, Y2 ≥ 1/2) =  9/16

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