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melomori [17]
3 years ago
7

The height of a trapezoid is 6 in. And its area is 48 in2. One base of the trapezoid is 6 inches longer than the other base. Wha

t are the lengths of the bases? Complete the explanation of how you found your answer.
Mathematics
1 answer:
omeli [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

  • 5 in
  • 11 in

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x represent the length of the shorter base in inches. Then the longer base has length x+6. The area of the trapezoid is given by the formula ...

  A = (1/2)(b1 +b2)h

Filling in the values we know, we have ...

  48 = (1/2)(x +(x+6))(6)

  16 = 2x +6 . . . . . divide by 3

  10 = 2x . . . . . . . . subtract 6

  5 = x . . . . . . . . . . divide by 2

  (x+6) = 11 . . . . . . find the longer base

The lengths of the bases are 5 inches and 11 inches. We found them by solving an equation relating area to base length.

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Answer:

Option b - Subtract

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : Expression 24\div(12-8)\times 6+3

To find : Which operation should be completed first in the expression below?

Solution :

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In the first step we solve the bracket in the expression  24\div(12-8)\times 6+3

So, we do subtraction i.e. 12-8=4

Therefore, option b is correct.

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3 years ago
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g 78% of all Millennials drink Starbucks coffee at least once a week. Suppose a random sample of 50 Millennials will be selected
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

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With the following parameters:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=50*0.78=39  \geq 10

n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})

With the following parameters:

\mu_ p = 0.78

\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586

6 0
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Lelu [443]

Answer:

x = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
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vodka [1.7K]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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