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Mama L [17]
3 years ago
12

Kinetic and potential energies of a roller coaster I'm doing a portfolio

Physics
1 answer:
Brut [27]3 years ago
4 0
On a roller coaster<span>, </span>energy<span> changes from </span>potential<span>to </span>kinetic energy<span> and back again many times over the course of a ride. </span>Kinetic energy<span> is </span>energy<span> that an object has as a result of its motion. All moving objects possess </span>kinetic energy, which is determined by the mass and speed of the object.

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A bungee jumper starts with 1000 J in their GPE store. After they jump they fall and are brought to a stop with the bungee cord.
pochemuha

Answer:

energy is equal to 1000 J

Explanation:

When the jumper is in the tent, he has a given height, this height gives him a gravitational potential energy, which forms his initial mechanical energy of 1000 J. After jumping, this energy is converted into elastic energy of the rope plus a remainder of potential energy gravitational, it does not reach the ground, but as the friction is negligible the total mechanical energy is conserved, therefore its energy is equal to 1000 J

This is a case of energy transformation, but the total value of mechanical energy does not change

         

8 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbold%7B%20Choose%20%5C%3A%20the%20%5C%3A%20correct%20%5C%3A%20Answer%20%5C%3A%20%3A%29%20%5
Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

B and B

Explanation:

Question 1:

The distance is a unit of length, such as miles, meters, kilometers

The correct answer for this question would be 8m

Question 2:

Speed has a unit of length per unit of time.

The correct answer for this would be meters per second

-Chetan K

3 0
3 years ago
During the experiment if you could double the breakaway magnetic force with all other quantities left unchanged, what is the new
sergiy2304 [10]
There are some missing information in the question.
However, since you are talking about magnetic force, I think you refer to the Lorentz force. When a particle of charge q and velocity v is immersed in a magnetic field of intensity B, the force acting on the particle is:
F=qvBsin\theta
where \theta is the angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the particle.
Therefore, if force F is doubled, then also the velocity v must be double of its initial value:
v=2v_0
6 0
3 years ago
Someone help please by providing work and answers please :)
cupoosta [38]
There are two ways to solve this. The longer way is to use those equations to calculate numbers for total distance.

The easier way is to find the area under the graph. That's right, AREA UNDER VELOCITY-TIME graph is the TOTAL DISTANCE travelled!

it's a shortcut.

Let's split up the area into a triangle and rectangle:

Triangle = 0.5(4-0)(10-0) = 20 m
Rectangle = (6-4)(10-0) = 20 m

Total distance = 40 m!
6 0
4 years ago
If a 160W light bulb consumes 1000J of electrical energy in a given time, then in the same time interval, how much energy will a
NNADVOKAT [17]
160w/4 = 40w
1000J/ 4= 250J
a 40w light bulb will consume 250J
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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