3 years ago

The journal entry to record the transfer of units from Process 1 to the Process 2 in process costing is:

Business

1 answer:

ratelena [41]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Debit Work in Process Inventory – 2 and credit Work in Process Inventory-1

Explanation:

Hope this helps :)

You might be interested in

Say that Thailand has a workforce of 35,709,487 people, each of whom earns an average salary of (equivalent USD) $8,630 annually

My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

Ans. c) Income tax rate must be 23%

Explanation:

Hi, the total income of Thailand´s workforce is:

$Total Income=35,709,487 people*\frac{8,630}{person} = 308,172,872,810$

Since Thailand´s government needs to raise $70,000,000,000, the tax rate has to be:

$TaxRate=\frac{70,000,000,000}{308,172,872,810} =0.23$

So Thailand´s tax rate must be: c. 23%

Best of luck.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What a primary cause of inflation

lesantik [10]

Excess aggregate demand (AD)

Quick economic growth.

5 0

3 years ago

In addition to risk-free securities, you are currently invested in the Tanglewood Fund, a broad-based fund of stocks and othe

Murrr4er [49]

Answer: 6.29%

Explanation:

Required return = Risk free rate + beta ( expected return - risk free rate)

Beta.

$= Correlation * \frac{Volatility of venture}{Volatility of fund} \\\\= 0.16 * \frac{0.8117}{0.2636} \\\\= 0.493$

Required return = 3.63% + 0.493(9.03% - 3.63%)

= 6.29%

7 0

3 years ago

Harrison Ford Company has been approached by a new customer with an offer to purchase 10,000 units of its model IJ5 at a price o

pantera1 [17]

Answer:

For the special order the company will not incur any additional fixed cost as the special order is within the normal range of production.

Sales ( 10000 * 5 ) 50000

(-) Direct materials ( 10000 * 1.75 ) 17500

(-) Direct labor ( 10000 * 2.50 ) 25000

(-) Variable overhead ( 10000 * 1.50 ) 15000

Income / (loss) (7500)

Required 1 :

Answer : Reject

Required 2 :

Answer : Decrease by 7500

3 0

3 years ago

Sheridan Company issued $6,500,000 of 6%, 10-year bonds for $5,614,000. The straight line method of amortization is to be used.

Mrac [35]

Answer:

The solution of the given query is explained throughout the segment below.

Explanation:

The given values are:

Company issued amount,

= $6,500,000

Rate of interest,

= 6%

Time,

= 10 years

Now,

On bonds payable amortization, the discount will be:

= $\frac{6,500,000 -5,614,000}{10}$

= $\frac{886,000}{10}$

= $88,600$ ($)

Interest expenses will be:

= $(6,500,000\times 6 \ percent) + 88,600$

= $390,000+88,600$

= $478,600$ ($)

5 0

3 years ago