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Kamila [148]
3 years ago
7

Evaluate expression when a=6 a2-6a+4

Mathematics
2 answers:
olga55 [171]3 years ago
8 0
Hi again :)

a = 6

a² - 6a + 4

All you have to do is to replace 6 where you see the a

(6)²  - 6(6) + 4

36 - 36 + 4

= 4

Yep, that easy!

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any questions :)
Mekhanik [1.2K]3 years ago
7 0
The first step to solving this problem is to plug in 6 where you see a in the expression
-6² - 6 (-6) + 4
the first step to solving this is to evaluate the power
-36 - 6x (-6) + 4
next you will multiply the numbers
-36 + 36 + 4
finally,, eliminate the opposite of the expression to find your answer
4
this means that the correct answer to your question is 4.
let me know if you have any further questions
:)
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10 more than a number divided by -8
Effectus [21]

Answer:

6X8=48 10 more is 58

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Solve for x<br> pls show work<br> 1/2x + 4 = 1/8x + 88
SVETLANKA909090 [29]

Answer:

224

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2x+4=1/8x+88

1/2x-1/8x+4=88

1/2x-1/8x=88-4

4/8x-1/8x=84

3/8x=84

x=84/(3/8)

x=(84/1)(8/3)

x=672/3

x=224

Please mark me as Brainliest if you're satisfied with the answer.

3 0
2 years ago
Which survey is biased?
Ymorist [56]
I believe it's b , hopefully this helps
7 0
2 years ago
A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 17

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

This is

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{17,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{17} \approx 0

P(X = 1) = C_{17,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{16} = 0.0001

P(X = 2) = C_{17,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{15} = 0.0010

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0.0001 + 0.0010 = 0.0011

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

5 0
2 years ago
BRAINLIEST AND 20 POINTS
Mice21 [21]
Taking a wild guess here but I think it is D... 

If wrong, let me know.
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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