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2 years ago

Difference between credit sales and credit card sales

Business

2 answers:

RSB [31]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

credit sales are sales on credit timing and exchange and credit card sales are sales on the card by banking

lubasha [3.4K]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

credit card sales is different credit sales because the credit card sales is paying by your bank money

the credit sales is cash paid later

You might be interested in

You are a self-employed profit-maximizing consultant specializing in monopolies. Five firms are currently seeking your advice, a

djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

The answer is option A) The short run recommendation for a monopolistic firm is to remain at the current output level

Explanation:

In the short run, monopolistic firms could record losses but still continue to run in anticipation of a sustainable profit in the long run.

A self-employed profit-maximizing consultant specializing in monopolies understands that the short run losses experienced in a monopoly is also an advantage in that it reduces the participation of more players in the same industry/ market segment.

The best recommendation would be to remain at the current output level during the short run to cut losses, sustain patronage and then develop a long term strategy that will guarantee profitability in the long run.

6 0

3 years ago

Claudia, a researcher, conducted a survey in Spain. She wrote her report in Spanish. However, she wants to publish her findings

Fed [463]

Answer:

Translational equivalence

Explanation:

Translational equivalence -

It refers to the resemblance in the word in a particular language with its translation in other language , is referred to as translational equivalence .

The similarity can lead to any confusion or problem and hence , from the question ,

Claudia hires a translator of both the languages i.e. , english and spain , in order to avoid the problem of Translational equivalence .

Hence , the correct answer is Translational equivalence .

3 0

3 years ago

Two investment advisers are comparing performance. Adviser A averaged a 20% return with a portfolio beta of 1.5, and adviser B a

Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

Option A is the correct answer.

A. Advisor A was better because he generated a larger alpha.

Explanation:

To determine which adviser would be the better stock selector, we will calculate the required rate of return of each adviser and the return actually averaged. The adviser with the greater abnormal return, which is return in excess of required rate, will be the better stock selector.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate

rM is the market return

r of Adviser A = 0.05 + 1.5 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser A = 0.17 or 17%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser A = 20% - 17% = 3%

r of Adviser B = 0.05 + 1.2 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser B = 0.146 or 14.6%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser B = 15% - 14.6% = 0.4%

Adviser A performed better as the excessive return or alpha of Adviser A was 3% while that of Adviser B was 0.4%

7 0

3 years ago

Determining Amounts to be Paid on Invoices Determine the amount to be paid in full settlement of each of the following invoices,

Svetlanka [38]

Answer: a) $30,400

b)$10,394

c)$16,830

d)$8,015

e)$76,626

Explanation:

When a credit term such as 2/10, n/30 is given, it means that the buyer is liable for a 2% discount if they pay within 10 days otherwise they must pay within 30 days.

Discounts are applied AFTER returns are subtracted.

Also any freight charges are charged to the buyer.

With that said, let's calculate this with gusto

a) No discount. Returns of $1,600

= 32,000 - 1,600

= $30,400 is amount to be paid.

b) Freight charges of $300. 2% discount. Returns of $2,500

= (1-0.02)*(12,800 - 2500) + 300

= $10,394 is amount to be paid.

c)Discount of 1%. Returns of $4,000.

= (21,000-4000) * ( 1 - 0.01)

= $16,830 is amount to be paid.

d) Freight charges of $175. Returns of $1,000 and discount of 2%.

= (9,000 - 1,000) * (1 - 0.02) + 175

= $8,015 is amount to be paid.

e) Discount of 1%. No returns.

= 77,400 ( 1 - 0.01)

= $76,626 is amount to be paid.

8 0

3 years ago

In the balance sheet at the end of its first year of operations, Dinty Inc. reported an allowance for uncollectible accounts of

Vlada [557]

Answer:

The correct option is 2. $50,200

Explanation:

Please see below the required journals for the transactions that occurred:

Debit Allowance for doubtful accounts $31,800

Credit Accounts receivable $31,800

(To record write-off of accounts receivable)

Debit Accounts receivable $2,340,000

Credit Sales revenue $2,340,000

(To record credit sales during the year)

Debit Cash $1,910,000

Credit Accounts receivable $1,910,000

(To record collection on account)

The effect of the above journals on allowance for doubtful account is a reduction. Since Dinty already assessed its allowance for doubtful account to be $82,000, bad debt expense required will be $50,200 ($82,000 - $31,800).
The balance in accounts receivable will be $2,340,000 - $1,910,000 - $31,800 = $398,200.

7 0

3 years ago