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mars1129 [50]
2 years ago
7

Think about what happened to Standard Oil. Write a paragraph in which you explain whether or not you agree with the actions take

n by the government to interfere with the growth of Standard Oil as a monopoly.
Business
1 answer:
hoa [83]2 years ago
5 0
The United States government was correct in interfering with the growth of Standard Oil. Not only was the company taking advantage of existing situations, but eventually it would have controlled the oil market entirely. If Standard Oil was able to gain control of the market for a long period of time, consumers could have had to pay extremely high prices for the oil that they needed, limiting their purchase of other goods. Or Sample response: The United States government should not have interfered with the growth of Standard Oil. Because the company had managed to reduce production costs, it was able to offer very low prices to consumers. This benefited many Americans. Without the company's production benefits, citizens were not able to take advantage of this infrastructure.
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Genie in a Bottle Company (GBC) manufactures plastic two-liter bottles for the beverage industry. The cost standards per 100 two
yan [13]

Answer:

See below.

Explanation:

Since the costs are per 100, to calculate total standard we multiply by 400,000/100 = 4000 and actual qty then is 4060.

For A, standard cost budget at standard prices.

Direct Labor            (2*4000)          = $8,000

Direct Material     (9.1*4000)        = $36,400

Factory Overhead  (0.55*4000)    = $2,200

Total                                                        = $46,600

For B, The total cost variances are as follows,

Material cost variance = (Standard Price - Actual Price) * Actual Quantity  

where, Standard price = 9.1 and Actual price = (35750/4060) = $8.81

Variance = (9.1 - 8.81) * 4060  = $1177.4 Favorable

Direct labor cost variance = (Standard rate - Actual Rate) * Actual Quantity

where, Standard rate = 2 and Actual rate = (7540/4060) = $1.86

Variance = (2-1.86) * 4060  = $568.4 Favorable

Factory Overhead variance

= Standard applied - Actual applied  

Variance = (0.55*4060) - 2680     = $447 Unfavorable

Net effect on total cost variances = (1177.4+568.4-447) = $1298.8 Favorable

For c)

The over all cost performance has favored the business as they ere able to lessen costs in direct labor and material department. However, the fixed costs performance has deteriorated and there may be some technical issues that the company can deal with to ensure they perform better on fixed costs. The over all performance is favorable.

5 0
3 years ago
nuary 1, Campanella Inc. issued $4,000,000, 8% bonds for $3,756,000. The market rate of interest for these bonds is 10%. Interes
olasank [31]

Answer:

$188,400

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Value Bonds issued = $4,000,000

Amount for which bonds issued = $3,756,000

Thus,

Bond discount at the time of issue = $4,000,000 - $3,756,000

= $244,000

Interest = 8%

Interest payable = Value Bonds issued × Interest  

= $4,000,000 × 8%

= $320,000

Market rate of interest = 10%

Therefore,

Interest expense = $3,756,000 × 10%

= $375,600

Thus,

Discount amortized = Interest expense  - Interest payable

= $375,600 - $320,000

= $55,600

Therefore,

At the end of the first year, Campanella should report unamortized bond discount

=  Bond discount at the time of issue - Discount amortized

= $244,000 - $55,600

= $188,400

3 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is not an example of income? wages food tips allowance.
kondaur [170]

Food because income is money you take in.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bond has a face value of $1,000, a coupon of 4% paid annually, a maturity of 30 years, and a yield to maturity of 7%. What rat
Lelechka [254]

Answer:

-11.8%

Explanation:

the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:

price=\frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{1} }+ \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{2} } \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{3} }+...+\frac{principal+principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{n} }

so in this particular case that one year later there are 29 years to maturity so we have:

price=\frac{1,000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{1} }+ \frac{1,000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{2} } \frac{1000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{3} }+...+\frac{1,000+1,000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{30} }

price=553.6638

so as we have a higher rate the investment has the next return:

return=\frac{553.66}{627.73} -1

return=-11.8\%

4 0
2 years ago
22. At the end of each year for the next 18 years, you receive cash flows of $3700. The initial investment is $25,200 today. Wha
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

29.37%

Explanation:

Rate of return = Average annual income/Average initial investment

Average annual income = $3,700

Average initial investment = (I+s)/2

Average initial investment = (25,200+0)/2

Average initial investment = $12,600

Rate of return = $3,700/$12,600

Rate of return = 0.2936508

Rate of return = 29.37%

6 0
2 years ago
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