Answer:
e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist
A perfect hedge is nearly impossible
Explanation:
A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.
At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.
Answer:
a. National income increases by $50,000 and factor payments to abroad increase by $20,000, so US GDP increases by $70,000
Explanation:
The German firm hired an American worker and paid him $50,000. That means that American national income will increase by $50,000.
Since the company is German, that would increase factor payments ot abroad by the difference = $70,000 - $50,000 = $20,000.
Total GDP increases by the amount of $50,000 + $20,000 = $70,000
D. You are willing and able to buy the good at the given price
The Log's aim is to aid in the evaluation of devices used in healthcare and other facilities, as well as to highlight issue devices or procedures that require more exposure attention or examination. At a minimum, the sharps injury log must include the kind and brand of device involved in the injury.
The department or work area where the exposure incident happened, and an account of how the incident occurred. keeping track of all needlestick injury, identifying causes of injuries, and preventing future incidences It must not be possible for blood or OPIM to get through to the skin, clothing, eyes, mouth, and so on. Needlesticks and wounds caused by infected sharps.
To learn more about injury, click here.
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Answer: customer will pay a sales charge
Explanation:
The statement which states that customer will have to pay sales charge in order to exchange shares within the family is not true. The fund family possesses an "exchange feature" at NAV. This means that the shares of one fund has the right to be redeemed and then reinvested in shares of another fund that is within the family without no sales charge.
For the customer that is exchanging Government bond Fund shares for the Growth Fund shares, tax event has occurred. Therefore, it will be expected that the customer's yield will reduce but that the capital gains will increase, because the person is moving from an "income" fund into a "growth" fund.
