Why might you complete a 1040 intead of a 1040EZ?

A potential investor is seeking to invest $500,000 in a venture, which currently has 1,000,000 million shares held by its founde

Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

a, 15%

b, 150,000

c, $ 3.30

d, = $3,333,333.33

e, $3,833,333.33

Explanation:

To solve this,

Note that we have been given a similar venture to compare to our venture.

The total shareholder's equity for the other venture (P) = $10,000,000 and the net income (E) = $1,000,000

Hence, Price/Earnings (P/E) for other venture = 10,000,000/1,000,000 = 10.0

Now for our venture, Earnings in the 5th year = $500,000

Assuming that P/E ratio for both the ventures to be equal, P/500,000 = 10.0

hence, total shareholder's value for our venture = $5,000,000 --------------- (1)

Now the investor invested $500,000 and expected 50% return after 5 years, hence the investor's value after 5 years would be equal to 500,000 * (1+50%) = $750,000 --------------- (2)

Now percent ownership of venture given to investor = (Value of investor's investment after 5 years/total value of all shareholders after 5 years)

Hence, divide (2) by (1)

percent ownership of venture given to investor = 750,000/5,000,000 = 0.15

or 15%

Therefore Answer to part 'a' is = 15%

Part (b) :For the percentage ownership given to new investor = 15%, total number of shares = 1,000,000

Hence, number of shares issued to new investor = 15% x 1,000,000 = 150,000

Hence, answer to part b = 150,000

Part (c): Amount invested by new investor = $500,000 and number of shares issued to him = 150,000

hence issue price of share = Amount invested / Number of shares issued

= 500,000/150,000 = $3.33

Hence, issue price per share = $3.33

Part (d):

The Pre money valuation is the value of the company before any external funding. In this case, the number of shares held with the founders before the new investor = 1,000,000 and the equity price = $3.33

hence, Value of the venture = 3.33 * 1,000,000 = $3,333,333.33

Hence, pre money valuation of the venture = $3,333,333.33

Part (e): Post money valuation of a company is the value of the company after external funding. In this case, investor invests $500,000 to the venture increasing the value of the company by the same amount.

Hence post money valuation = pre money valuation + Investment

= 3,333,333.33 + 500,000

= 3,833,333.33

Hence, post-money valuation of the venture = $3,833,333.33

7 0

3 years ago

Brenda says her assets are definitely greater than her liabilities. which explains whether brenda is correct? brenda is correct

yuradex [85]

Brenda is not correct because the total value of her assets could be less than the liabilities.

<h3>What are liabilities?</h3>

A liability is an obligation that a person or business has, typically financial in nature. Over time, liabilities are resolved by the transmission of economic advantages like cash, products, or services.

Liabilities on the balance sheet's right side are represented by debts like as loans, accounts payable, mortgages, deferred revenue, bonds, warranties, and accumulated costs.

Assets can be contrasted with liabilities. Assets are items you own or owe money to, whereas liabilities are debts or other obligations.

An obligation between two parties that has not yet been fulfilled or paid for is generally referred to as a liability.

Learn more about liabilities

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3 0

2 years ago

Which best describes the barrier to trade known as dumping? Destroying shipments of imports to force consumers into purchasing d

Lana71 [14]

Answer: Selling exports abroad at a lower price than the domestic price.

Explanation:

Dumping is a practice in international trade where the country exporting, does so at a price that is lower than the domestic price of the good being exported in the importing country.

This allows the country exporting to gain more market share but can also lead to the collapse of the domestic industry thereby allowing for an export based monopoly to form.

An example would be Japan selling electronics in the U.S. at lower rates to capture market share even though those same electronics commanded a higher price in Japan.

7 0

3 years ago

Peter and Paul shared a sum of money in the ratio of 4:5. If peter got ₱56,000,what was the original amount of money?

Natalka [10]

Answer:

126,000

Explanation:

56,000/4 = 14,000

5*14,000 = 70,000

56,000 + 70,000 = 126,000

8 0

2 years ago

Suppose that France and Austria both produce rye and wine. France's opportunity cost of producing a bottle of wine is 4 bushels

miv72 [106K]

Answer:

France has comparative advantage in production of wine

Austria has comparative advantage in production of rye.

4 bushels of rye for each bottle of wine

1 bottle of wine for each bushel.

b. 4 bushel of rye per bottle of wine.

Explanation:

France has comparative advantage in producing wine as it has opportunity cost of 4 bushels per bottle of wine. Austria has comparative advantage in producing bushels as it has opportunity cost of 10 bushels per bottle of wine. The both countries can gain advantage if they agree for 4 bushels per wine.

3 0

3 years ago