Answer:A) one year
Explanation: The unbiased expectations theory, also known as the expectation theory aims to estimate how much the short term interest rates will amount to in future. This is based on long term interest rates. Forward rates are used to predict the value of interests in the future based on the values calculated today. A maturity of 1 year has the lowest interest rate because it is not given enough time to grow. Interest rates tend to grow better over a longer period of time. Therefore in terms of expectation theory the longer the maturity the better the chances of interest rate growth.
Answer:
a) Pre-tax cost of debt is 8.45%
b) After tax cost of debt is 5.07%
Explanation:
a) Given:
Debt issue outstanding = $15.5 million
Semi-annual coupon rate = 0.063 / 2 = 0.0315
Assumed par value (FV) = $1,000
Coupon payment (pmt) = 0.0315 × 1000 = $31.5
Current bond price (PV) = 92% of $1,000 = $920
Time period (nper) = 5 × 2 = 10 periods
Calculate semi-annual rate using spreadsheet function =Rate(nper,pmt,PV,FV)
Semi-annual rate = 4.14%
Pmt and FV are negative as they are cash outflows.
YTM = 4.14 × 2 = 8.28%
Effective annual rate = 
= 
= 0.0845 or 8.45%
b) Tax rate is 40%
After tax cost of debt = Pre tax cost of debt × (1 - 0.4)
= 0.0845 × 0.6
= 0.0507 or 5.07%
Answer:
correct option is d. rental costs of $10,000 per month plus $0.30 per machine hour of use
Explanation:
solution
The combined cost is one in which the factor is variable and constant.
Sometimes, even the total cost is difficult to separate.
The chosen option also includes a fixed cost that costs $ 5,000 per month.
The cost per hour of the machine increases 0.30 per hour.
This is variable because the entire machine depends on the number of hours used.
The other three are completely variable, such as salary, and are not deductible or cost of electricity.
Answer:
$ 2,621.28
Explanation:
The simple interest I=P*R*T
P is the principal amount of $11,000
R is the simple interest rate of 6%
T is the number of years the interest relates to
I=$11,000*6%*11=$7260
Compound interest:
FV=PV*(1+r)^n
FV is the amount of the deposit in eleventh year
PV is the amount deposited which is $11,000
r is the rate of return of 6%
n is eleven years
FV=$11000*(1+6%)^11=$ 20,881.28
I=FV-PV= 20,881.28-11,000=$ 9,881.28
Difference between interest earned=$9,881.28-$
7260
=$ 2,621.28
Answer:
1. 32.68%
2 .C. Two years
Explanation:
1. Using Excel or a scientific calculator, you can calculate the IRR which is the discount rate that makes the Net Present Value to equal $0.
= IRR(-2100000,1200000,1200000,1200000)
= 32.68%
2. The Payback period is how long it takes for the cash inflows to pay off the original investment.
Original Investment = -$2,000
After year 1 = -2,000 + 600 = -$1,400
After year 2 = -1,400 + 1,400 = $0
It took 2 years to payback the original investment so Two years is the Payback period.