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2 years ago

At a dance camp, students must specialize in one style of dance. Of the 62 dancers at the

Mathematics

1 answer:

kicyunya [14]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

10/31

0.32

32%

Step-by-step explanation:

Students must specialize in one style of dance.

Last summer there was 62 dancers.

20 of the 62 specialized in modern dance.

Therefore the probability of a random chosen dancer to be a modern specification is 20/62.

The answer is:

Fraction:

---

Whole number:

0.32

Percent:

32%

You might be interested in

Y = 15x + 10, where y is the total cost of renting 1 bicycle on the boardwalk for x hours. Determine whether the function is pro

vova2212 [387]

Answer:

The function is non-proportional.

Step-by-step explanation:

If the function was proportional, when the number of hours spent riding the bicycle is equal to 0, the total cost of renting the bicycle would also be 0. In other words, the function would be proportional if y=0 when x=0. However, this is not the case.

$y=15x+10$

Plug 0 into the equation as x

$y=15(0)+10\\y=10$

When 1 bicycle has been rented for 0 hours, the customer still has to pay 10 dollars just for renting it. When x=0, y=10. This means that the function is non-proportional.

I hope this helps!

4 0

2 years ago

Find the product of<br>the sum of<br>3/5 and 1%<br>and

dybincka [34]

Answer:

3/500

Step-by-step explanation:

3/5 x 1%

=> 3/5 x 1/100

=> 3/500

Hope it helps you

8 0

2 years ago

Samples of 20 parts from a metal punching process are selected every hour. Typically, 1% of the parts require rework. Let X deno

Roman55 [17]

Answer:

a) P(X>np+3 $\sqrt{np(1-p)}$ =0.017

b) P(x>1)=0.190

c) P(Y>1)=0.651

Step-by-step explanation:

This a binomial experiment where success is denoted by parts that need rework.

X ∼ B(n, p); n = 20; p = 0.01

The expected value of X is: E(X) = np =20×0.01= 0.2

The variance is: Var(X) = np(1 − p) = 0.2 × 0.99 = 0.198,

The standard deviation SD(X)= $\sqrt{0.198}$ ≈ 0.445

a) P(X>np+3 $\sqrt{np(1-p)}$ =P(X>0.2+3×0.445)=P(X>1.535)=P(X≥2)

Probability function is given by:

$\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!} *p^x*(1-p)^{(n-x)}$

P(X≥2)=1-P(X<2)=1-P(X=1)-P(X=0)= 1 - $\frac{20!}{1!(20-1)!} *(0.01)^{1}*(1-0.01)^{(20-1)}$ - $\frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.01)^{0}*(1-0.01)^{(20-0)}$

P(X≥2)=1-0.165-0.818=0.017

b) p=0.04

P(x>1)=P(x≥2)= 1 - P(x=1) - P(x=0)= 1 - $\frac{20!}{0!(20-1)!} *(0.04)^{1}*(1-0.04)^{(20-1)}$ - $\frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.04)^{0}*(1-0.04)^{(20-0)}$

P(x>1)= 1 - 0.368 - 0.442=0.190

c) In this case we consider p=0.19 (Probability that X exceeds 1)

In this experiment Y is the number of hours and n= 5 hours.

Then, we check the probability in each hour:

P(Y>1)=1- P(Y=0)

P(Y=0)= $\frac{5!}{0!(5-0)!} *(0.19)^{0}*(1-0.19)^{(5-0)}$ =0.349

P(Y>1)=1-0.349=0.651

3 0

2 years ago

Ticket costs £63 plus a booking fee of 3%. <br> What is the total price of the ticket ?

Arte-miy333 [17]

The answer is £64.89.

Step by Step:

Take the original price multiplied by 0.03 ( the percent of a booking fee ) and add those amounts together.

Equation: 63 + 1.89 = 64.89

5 0

2 years ago

In the Special Right Triangle below, solve for the value of y. Y = _____ (keep your answer in simplest radical form)

olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

The equation of a right triangle is given by a2 + b2 = c2, where either a or b is the height and base of the triangle and c is the hypotenuse. Using the Pythagorean Theorem, finding the missing side of a triangle is pretty simple and easy. The two special right triangles include: 45°; 45°; 90° Triangle.

a correct answer that guy ☝ is rude can i get brainliest for answering

3 0

2 years ago