Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement as at October 2:
Balance as per checkbook $601
Add: Electronic transfer $2,400
Interest $4
Less: Bank charge ($5)
Balance as per bank statement $3,000
Explanation:
A bank reconciliation statement is a statement prepared periodically to reconcile the balance in the cash book with the balance shown on a bank statement.
The process starts with identifying transactions that do not (do) appear in the cash book and those that do not (do) appear in the bank statement, which did not appear in the other. Errors are also identified and corrected during the process. After this, the reconciliation statement is prepared to agree the two sources of balances.
When there is an increase in the deficit of the current account, the pressure on the home currency value all things equal would be a downward pressure.
<h3>What happens when there is a current account deficit?</h3>
A current account deficit means that the country is earning less from exporting goods to other countries than it is losing from importing from other nations.
What this means is that more money is flowing out of the country than the money that is coming in. What this leads to a loss in currency value because it points to less demand for the home currency.
This is because the deficit would place a downward pressure on the local currency. On the upside, this decrease in currency value might spur exports which would lead to a better current account balance.
In conclusion, there will be downward pressure.
Find out more on the current account at brainly.com/question/22333470
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Answer:
True
Explanation:
2% out of 100 guest purposefully scam.
Answer:
$20,000 premium is amortized at the end of the first year.
Explanation:
Straight line amortization:
premium amortized = Premium / number of years
= ($5,200,000 - $5,000,000) / 10 years
= $200,000 premium / 10 years
= $20,000
Therefore, $20,000 premium is amortized at the end of the first year.
After US companies objected that the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act would put them at a competitive disadvantage, the FCPA was eventually amended to allow for <u>grease payments.</u>
<h3><u>Grease payments are what?</u></h3>
While a grease payment is made to hasten a trade or transaction, the former. The purpose of a grease payment is to expedite the process rather than to actually complete a transaction. Grease payments are not allowed under the FCPA as a way to influence the decision-making process of foreign officials.
In the event that they did, the money would be seen as a bribe and would be prohibited. It all comes down to the purpose of the money, and there is a very thin line between a greasing payment and a foreign bribe.
Learn more about grease payments with the help of the given link:
brainly.com/question/14529082
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<u>Correct question:</u>
After US companies objected that the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act would put them at a competitive disadvantage, the FCPA was eventually amended to allow for ______.
Multiple choice question.
a) grease payments
b) import tariffs
c) commission payments
d) export tariffs
