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Marina86 [1]
4 years ago
13

Interest is eligible to be capitalized as part of an asset's cost, rather than being expensed immediately, when:a. The asset is

a discrete construction project for sale or lease.b. The interest is incurred during the construction period of the asset.c. The asset is self-constructed, rather than acquired.d. All of these answer choices are correct.
Business
1 answer:
Lostsunrise [7]4 years ago
7 0

Answer and Explanation:

d. All of these answer choices are correct.

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Kushman Industries has $40,000 of ending finished goods inventory. If beginning finished goods inventory was $20,000 and cost of
Kamila [148]

Answer:

$100,000= cost of goods manufactured

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Kushman Industries has $40,000 of ending finished goods inventory.

Beginning finished goods inventory was $20,000

Cost of goods sold was $80,000

To calculate the cost of goods manufactured, we need to use the following formula:

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

80,000 = 20,000 + cost of goods manufactured - 40,000

$100,000= cost of goods manufactured

4 0
3 years ago
Sebastian Motors is a family-owned car dealership with two locations in central France. The car dealership markets BMWs and Mini
docker41 [41]

Answer: European union              

Explanation: The European union is the joint union organisation of 28 European countries.

In the given case, Sebastian motors has been affected by the factor of external environment. In the year 2018, European union evidenced a major downfall in currency due to the brexit deal from England.

Hence from the above we can conclude that the correct answer is European union.

5 0
3 years ago
Who wants to play a game with me?<br> (15+ only please)​
Wittaler [7]

Answer:

Yo you want to play game now?

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
The December 31, 2018, balance sheet of Whelan, Inc., showed long-term debt of $1,420,000, $144,000 in the common stock account,
mestny [16]

Answer:

$606,000

Explanation:

For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-

Net New borrowing = Long-term Debt, 2019 - Long-term Debt, 2018

= $1,620,000 - $1420,000

= $200,000

Cash flow to creditors = Interest expense - Net new borrowings

= $96,000 - $200,000

= -$104,000

Net new equity = Common stock 2019 + Additional paid in surplus 2019 - Common stock 2018 + Additional paid in surplus 2018

= $154,000 + $2,990,000 - $144,000 - $2,690,000

= $310,000

Cash flow to stockholders = Dividend 2019 - Net new equity

= $149,000 - $310,000

= -$161,000

Cash flow from assets = Cash flow to creditors + Cash flow to stockholders

= -$104,000 + (-$161,000)

= -$265,000

and finally

Operating cash flow = cash flow from assets + Net capital spending + Change in Net working capital

= (-$265,000) + $100,000 + (-$129,000)

= $606,000

5 0
3 years ago
Regina Henry deposited $20,000 in a money market certificates that provides interest of 10% compound and quarterly if the amount
Andrews [41]

Answer:

Regina: Final amount=$62,769

Will Smith: Present value:  $213,216

Explanation:

Regina:

Compound quarterly means that each quarter of the year ( every three months) she will receive a 10% interest rate of her deposit. To convert this periodic rate to an annual rate( because the problem ask you about years) you use this formula :

Annual rate= ((1+Periodic rate)^(# periods))-1

In this case the number of periods means the number of quarters a year have, which is 4

Annual rate= ((1+10%)^(4))-1= 46.41%

To find the final amount Regina has after 3 year we use this formula:

Final Capital (FC)= Initial Capital (IC)*[(1+interest(i))]^(number of periods(n))

FC= $20,000*[(1+46.41%)^3]

FC=$62,769 I attached an excel figure which shows a more detailed data.

Will Smith

Semiannually means that every 6 months Will Smith will receive a 12% interest rate of the initial investment. To convert this periodic rate to an annual rate you use the same above formula:

Annual rate= ((1+Periodic rate)^(# periods))-1

In each year Will will receive twice the interest rate over the initial investment

Annual rate = ((1+12%)^(2))-1

Annual rate= 25.44%

The present value of $80,000 from now to 5 years is calculated using the formula attached, but I used Excel. First you have to copy all the cash flows of the 5 years. Then, you set the interest rate that in this case is the one that you found above( 25.44%). Finally you use the financial formula "NPV" in this way:

"=NPV(25.44%;C4:C8)" I used C4:C8 because in those excel cells i copied the cash flows.

I got that the present value of this amount is $213,216

5 0
4 years ago
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