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Tatiana [17]
3 years ago
6

Each pound of American blend coffee requires 12 ounces of Colombian beans and 4 ounces of Dominican beans, while a pound of Brit

ish blend coffee uses 8 ounces of each type of bean. Profits for the American blend are $2.00 per pound, and profits for the British blend are $1.00 per pound. What is the Columbia bean constraint?
Business
1 answer:
inna [77]3 years ago
8 0

The question is incomplete.

The correct question is:

The production planner for Fine Coffees, Inc. produces two coffee blends: American (A) and British (B). He can only get 300 pounds of Colombian beans per week and 200 pounds of Dominican beans per week. Each pound of American blend coffee requires 12 ounces of Colombian beans and 4 ounces of Dominican beans, while a pound of British blend coffee uses 8 ounces of each type of bean. Profits for the American blend are $2.00 per pound, and profits for the British blend are $1.00 per pound

What is the constraint for Dominican beans?

Answer: 12A + 8B ≤ 4,800

Explanation:

Two of his resources are constrained and Columbia beans is one of them which he gets at most 300pounds which is 4800 ounces per week.

Therefore the objective function is:

A + B = Z

The objective function is to maximize profit of of 2 dollars per pound of A and 1 dollar per pound of B.

=2 A + B

The Columbia bean constraint is:

The production planner uses 12 ounces of A and 8 ounces of B.

Therefore the maximum available is;

12A + 8B ≤ 4,800

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The reason for risk pooling which is beneficial for the insurance industry is best described as it brings together many individuals' premiums so that there is money to cover a selected few losses.

Option B is the correct answer.

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7 0
2 years ago
1. Accounts in non-depository institutions are almost always insured by the government. [x]True False 2. All financial instituti
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6 0
3 years ago
Opportunity cost is __
Mariulka [41]

Answer: A.

Explanation:

By definition, opportunity cost is the amount or value of something you gave up for another good.

For example: say you value sleeping in at $5 value going to class at $4. You decide to get up and go to class, the $4 value. Therefore, your opportunity cost is what you gave up (sleeping in) for another good/choice (going to class), is $5 since you valued sleeping in at that.

6 0
3 years ago
Company A purchases Company B. This is a 100% equity purchase which means that Company A acquires all of the Company B assets an
Drupady [299]

Answer:

Company A and Company B

Calculation of Goodwill on Acquisition:

= $212,433

Explanation:

a) Current market value of:

 Tangible physical assets = $1,234,567

  Intangible asset =                 $125,000

Total assets' value =            $1,359,567

less Liabilities:

  Operating =  $160,000

  Financial =     600,000      ($760,000)

Net value of assets =             $599,567

Purchase Price (Company B) $812,000

Goodwill                                  $212,433

b) Company A acquired Goodwill when it bought over Company B.  This is an intangible asset which is calculated by subtracting the net value of assets (the difference between the fair market value of the assets and liabilities) from the purchase price of the acquired subsidiary.

3 0
3 years ago
You were able to purchase two tickets to an upcoming concert for $100 apiece when the concert was first announced three months a
dusya [7]

Answer: $450

Explanation:

Total tickets purchased = 2

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Total cost of two tickets = $225 × 2

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The opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone by selecting some other alternative. So, here two options are available that either attend the concert or resell the ticket at $450. Therefore, the opportunity cost of attending the concert is $450.

4 0
3 years ago
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