Answer:
Explanation:
Fixed costs - will remain similar no matter of output amount
Variable costs - vary with the change in output
Average cost=(Fixed cost(FC) + Variable cost(VC))/number of units produced
VC = VC per cup of coffee served *cup of coffee served in a week
Total Cost(TC)= FC+VC
Average cost=TC/Cup of coffee served in a week
1. Let's calculate for 2000 cups of coffee:
FC remain the same! = $1200
VC=0.22*2000= $440
TC=FC+VC= 1200+440= $1640
Average cost of 1 cup of coffee= TC/#of cups=1640/2000=$0.82
2. Calculation for 2100 cups:
FC=1200
VC=0.22*2100=462
TC=1200+462=1662
Av cost=1662/2100=0.79
3. Calculation for 2200 cups:
FC=1200
VC=0.22*2200=484
TC=1200+484=1684
Av cost=1684/2200=0.77
As the number of cups increased from 2000 to 2100, the average cost per cup devreased 0.82 to 0.79. Then when number of cups increased to 2200, average cost decreased to 0.77. The reduction is due to the variable cost
The disposal fee increases the cost to $1,105
<h3>What is d
isposal fee?</h3>
The price charged to the customer for the proper disposal of an item or items of solid waste is referred to as the disposal fee.
The term cost of disposal refers to the additional expense directly associated with the disposal of an asset, contract, or cash-generating entity. Cost of disposal is frequently a future liability that appears on the income statement as an expense as it is incurred.
Waste disposal is the collection, processing, recycling, or disposal of human society's waste materials.
Any solid waste or regulated medical waste from a vessel or receiving facility that is placed, discharged, spilled, dropped, or leaked into state waters or adjoining shorelines is referred to as a waste deposit or "deposit of waste."
To know more about disposal fee follow the link:
brainly.com/question/376227
#SPJ4
Answer:
11547 lb
Explanation:
Economic Order Quantity is the ordering quantity where the cost of ordering and holding inventory is the minimum. It is the point where the cost of ordering and holding inventory intersects.
To calculate the Economic Order Quantity we use the following formula,
- EOQ =√(2 × Annual Demand × Ordering Cost/Order) / Holding Cost per unit per annum
Plugging in the values in the formula,
- EOQ = √(2 × 100000 × 100) / 0.15 ⇒ 11547.00538 rounded off to 11547 lbs
Answer:
D
Explanation:
I'm sure the question was geared toward teaching you the difference between elastic and inelastic.
If your demand for a product does not change even if the price goes up, then the demand is considered to be inelastic.
However, the question posed to get this teaching point across made the answer almost impossible. A drug addict's demand can drastically change from day to day depending on how readily that person can get hold of the money needed. One day money may not be a problem so the expenditure will increase because their demand is price-inelastic. The very next day the person may not be able to find any money at all. Therefore, the expenditure will decrease because their demand is price-elastic
Answer:
1) For the equipment that was sold, determine its original cost, its accumulated depreciation, and the cash received from the sale.
- original cost = $9,800
- accumulated depreciation = $1,020
- cash received = $5,980
2) Sanchez Company uses the indirect method for the Operating Activities section of the cash flow statement. What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Operating Activities?
- the loss on sale of equipment ($2,800) should be added to the cash flows from operating activities.
3) What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Investing Activities?
- the cash received ($5,980) should be added to the cash flow from investing activities
Explanation:
equipment cost = beginning equipment - ending equipment = $20,000 - $10,200 = $9,800
equipment's accumulated depreciation = beginning accumulated depreciation + depreciation expense - ending depreciation = $1,950 + $860 - $1,790 = $1,020
book value = $9,800 - $1,020 = $8,780
cash received = book value - loss = $8,780 - $2,800 = $5,980
