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Oksi-84 [34.3K]
3 years ago
11

Harvey automobiles uses a standard part in the manufacture of several of its trucks. the cost of producing​ 90,000 parts is​ $13

0,000, which includes fixed costs of​ $70,000 and variable costs of​ $60,000. the company can buy the part from an outside supplier for​ $3.50 per​ unit, and avoid​ 30% of the fixed costs.
Business
1 answer:
Mazyrski [523]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

If Harvey decides to purchase the parts instead of manufacturing them, their total costs will increase by $164,000

Explanation:

currently Harvey's costs are:

variable costs = $70,000

fixed costs = $60,000

total $130,000

total cost per unit = $130,000 / 90,000 units = $1.44 per unit

if Harvey decide to outsource the production of the parts:

variable costs = 90,000 x $3.50 = $315,000

decrease in fixed costs = $70,000 x -30% = -$21,000

total costs = $294,000

If Harvey decides to purchase the parts instead of manufacturing them, their total costs will increase by ⇒ $294,000 - $130,000 = $164,000

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Allegheny Company ended Year 1 with balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $68,000 and $3450, re
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

  • What amount will Allegheny report as bad debts Expense on its Year 2 income statement?

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Explanation:

  • Balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of:

Dr Accounts receivable $ 68,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3,450

 

  • Allegheny write off $6300 of Uncollectible Accounts.  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6,300

Cr Accounts receivable $ 6,300

 

  • Allegheny estimates that the ending Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance should be $5,400  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Because the company already has a DEBIT balance ($2,850) in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  

it's necessary to register an entry that COMPENSATE ($8,250) the existing value and reflect the value estimated as bad debts ($5,400 = $8,250-$2,850).  

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % of estimated value.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets .

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

8 0
3 years ago
MC Qu. 169 A manufacturer reports the following costs to produce... A manufacturer reports the following costs to produce 23,000
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

Unitary product cost= $54

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Production= 23,000 units

Direct materials= $23 per unit

Direct labor= $19 per unit

Variable overhead= $276,000

<u>Under the variable costing method, the unit product cost is calculated using direct material, direct labor, and variable overhead.</u>

First, we need to calculate the unitary variable overhead.

Unitary overhead= 276,000/23,000= $12 per unit

Unitary product cost= 23 + 19 + 12= $54

5 0
3 years ago
Required information
Triss [41]

Answer:

1. Ending inventory = $3519

2. Cost of Goods Sold = $21030

3. Sales Revenue = $27279

4. Gross Profit = $6249

Explanation:

FIFO method of inventory valuation is whereby the stock that first comes into the business, leaves first. This is common in perishable inventory such as vegetables or fruits.

Jan 1. Beginning inventory: 53 units x $45 = $2385

Total

53 units x $45 = $2385

Apr 7. Purchase 133 units x $47 = $6251

Total

53 units x $45 = $2385

133 units x $47 = $6251

Jul 16. Purchase 203 units x $50 = $10150

Total

53 units x $45 = $2385

133 units x $47 = $6251

203 units x $50 = $10150

Oct 6. Purchase 113 units x $51 = $5763

53 units x $45 = $2385

133 units x $47 = $6251

203 units x $50 = $10150

113 units x $51 = $5763

1. Ending inventory = 502 - 433 = 69 hence,

69 units x $51 = $3519

2. Cost of Goods Sold =

[$2385 + $6251 + $10150 + (44 units x $51)] = $21030

OR $24549 - 3519 = $21030

3. Sales Revenue =

433 units x $63 = $27279

4. Gross Profit = Sales Revenue - Cost of Goods Sold hence,

$27279 - 21030 = $6249

4 0
3 years ago
Your firm is planning to invest in a new electrostatic power generation system. Electrostat Inc is a firm that specializes in th
kozerog [31]

Answer:

The cost of capital for electrostatic power generators is closest to 7.75%

Explanation:

In order to calculate the estimate of your cost of capital for electrostatic power generators we would have to make the following calculation:

Step-1, Calculation of the Overall Beta

Market Value of Equity = $40,00,00,000 [160,00,000 Shares x $25 per share]

Market Value of Debt = $22,00,00,000

Total Market Value = $62,00,00,000

Therefore, Beta = [Equity Beta x Weight of Equity] + [Debt Beta x Weight of Debt]

= [1.18 x ($40,00,00,000 / $62,00,00,000)] + [0.08 x ($22,00,00,000 / $62,00,00,000)]

= 0.761290 + 0.028387

= 0.789677

Step-2, Cost of capital

As per CAPM Approach, Cost of capital = Risk-free Rate x (Beta x Market Risk Premium)

= 3% + (0.789677 x 6%)

= 3% + 4.75%

= 7.75%

Therefore, the cost of capital for electrostatic power generators is closest to  7.75%

6 0
3 years ago
The reason why reinvested earnings have a cost equal to the required rate of return is because investors expect to earn on those
KatRina [158]

Answer:

true the investors expect to earn on those funds

4 0
3 years ago
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