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3 years ago

Simplify 2x2 - y for x= 3 and y=-2.

Mathematics

1 answer:

amm18123 years ago

7 0

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug and chug

2

8*(3)*2 - (-2)

12 - (-2)

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Find the sum of -10x^2-x+6−10x 2 −x+6 and 10x^2-510x 2 −5.

irina [24]

Answer:

1. -10x^2-x+6-10x 2-x+6 = -10x^2 - 22x + 12

2. 10x^2-510x 2-5 = 10x^2 - 1020x - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

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DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

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2 years ago

Decrease £110 by 50%

stellarik [79]

Half of 110 is 55 so the answer is 55

5 0

2 years ago

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What's the lateral area of the following cone?

Kay [80]

Answer:

Since the base of a cone is a circle, we substitute 2πr for p and πr2 for B where r is the radius of the base of the cylinder. So, the formula for the lateral surface area of a right cone is L. S. A=πrl , where l is the slant height of the cone .

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

What is the opsilute value for 27/90 and 100/99

belka [17]

Answer:

3 /10

Decimal Form:

0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago