The ________ period in japan lasted from 794 to 1185.

Orlando has a bank statement balance of $414.25 and $5.90 service charge. His check register shows $374.16 and he has two outsta

laiz [17]

Answer:

$365.93

Explanation:

The computation of the checkbook balance is shown below:

= Balance of bank statement - first outstanding check amount - second outstanding check amount

= $414.25 - $26.54 - $21.78

= $365.93

In order to determine the check book balance, we deducted the two outstanding checks from the bank statement balance

6 0

2 years ago

Jimmy establishes a Roth IRA at age 47 and contributes a total of $89,600 over 18 years. The account is now worth $112,000. Assu

ValentinkaMS [17]

Answer: $112,000

Explanation:

Jimmy is able to withdraw the entire $112,000 tax-free.

This is because to be able to Withdraw tax-free, one must have deposited money in the IRA for a minimum of 5 years and the person must be at least 59.5 years of age.

Those 2 criteria are met by Jimmy who deposited for 18 years and is now aged 65.

4 0

2 years ago

Ikerd Company applies manufacturing overhead to jobs on the basis of machine hours used. Overhead costs are estimated to total $

Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

A. $2.40 per Machine hour

B. Underapplied = $10,000

C. cost of goods sold (debit) $10,000 , overheads (credit) $10,000

Explanation:

A) Compute the manufacturing overhead rate for the year

Overhead Rate = Total Fixed Overheads / Budgeted Activity

= $300,000 / 125,000 Machine hours

= $2.40 per Machine hour.

B) What is the amount of under- or over applied overhead at December 31st?

Under Applied Overheads = Actual Overheads > Applied Overheads

Over Applied Overheads = Actual Overheads < Applied Overheads

Actual Overheads = $322,000

Applied Overheads = $2.40 × 130,000 hours = $ 312,000

Underapplied = $10,000

C) Prepare the adjusting entry to assign the under- or overapplied overhead for the year to cost of goods sold.

cost of goods sold (debit) $10,000

overheads (credit) $10,000

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is a disadvantage of the payback method?

HACTEHA [7]

The statement " It eliminates the inflows of cash earned following the payback period and time value of money" is the disadvantage of the payback method

The payback period is the period thats tells the time period in which the initial investment that was made should be recovered.

It is to be measured in years normally.

For finding the disadvantage, we need to find out the following information related payback period

It is easy to calculate
The cash flows earned after the payback period should not be used
There is no requirement to determine the present value factor for measuring the payback period.
Also, it does not use for distinct cheap projects from lower ones

So this is the reason this method ignored the times value of money

Therefore, we can conclude that, the correct option is b.

Learn more about the payback method here: brainly.com/question/16255939

5 0

3 years ago

Axcel software began a new development project in 2020. the project reached technological feasibility on june 30, 2021, and was

Neporo4naja [7]

The amortization of the software development costs for the year 2022 would be $5,60,000.

<h3>What is Amortization?</h3>

Amortization is the process of repaying a debt in equal amounts over time. A portion of each payment is applied to the loan principal, while the remainder is applied to interest.

When a mortgage loan is amortized, the amount paid toward principal begins small and steadily increases month after month.

<u>Computation</u>:

According to the given information,

The revenues of 2022 from the sale of new software(Sales Revenue)= $4,000,000.

Anticipated Additional Revenues = $6,000,000

Then, the total revenue is :

$\text{Total Sales} = \text{Sales Revenue + AAR}\\\\\text{Total Sales} = \$4,000,000+ \$6,000,000\\\\\text{Total Sales} = \$10,000,000$

Then, the percentage of Total Revenue would be:

$\text{Percentage of Total Revenue} = \dfrac{\text{Sales Revenue}}{\text{Tota Revenue}}\\\\\text{Percentage of Total Revenue} = \dfrac{\$4,000,000}{\$10,000,000}\\\\\text{Percentage of Total Revenue} = 40\%$

Then, the Cost incurred from June to the date of product release =

Therefore, the amortization of the software development costs for the year 2022:

$=\text{Cost incurred to product release} \times \text{percentage of Total Revenue}\\\\=\$1,400,000 \times 40\% \\\\=\$5,60,000$

Learn more about the Amortization, refer to:

brainly.com/question/24232991

$SPJ1

5 0

1 year ago