This question can have many answers but ill try to answer it in the north slaves werent profitable so most northerners didnt have slaves and eventually slavery was seen as morally wrong in the north so in the south once abraham lincoln became president the south became its own coutry and the civil war began so after the north won slavery was abolished in the south.
Answer:
c. The Syrian Desert did not have enough good farmland.
Explanation:
The Akkadian Empire was a great kingdom of Mesopotamia formed from the conquests of Sargon I of Akkad. It maintained its maximum splendor in the XXII century BCE (2334 to 2192 BC) in which five monarchs succeeded each other: Sargon himself, his sons Rimush and Manishutusu, his grandson Naram-Sin and his son, Sharkalisharri who ruled for 141 years.
The dominions of the Akkadian Empire extended to the entire basin of the Tigris and Euphrates, Elam, Syria and - according to the inscriptions - even further, to Lebanon and the Mediterranean coast. According to these inscriptions, incursions into Anatolia and the interior of the Zagros Mountains would be made and the empire would control the trade of the Persian Gulf towards «Magan» (possibly Oman) and the Indus Valley region.
The empire reached its maximum territorial extension: in the western limits it incorporated the regions of Aleppo (in present-day Syria), and the surroundings of Tripoli (in the Canaanite Mediterranean coast of present-day Lebanon); in the Orientals it conquered Susa and, in the north, it expanded by Anatolia. It is a combination of steppe and desert that is located in the north of the Arabian peninsula and covers more than 500,000 km2 in eastern Syria and Jordan, and in western Iraq. The desert is very rocky and flat. Due to its scarcity of resources and its extreme climate, it is a region little inhabited by life. For this reason, the Syrian desert did not have enough good farmland which limited the expansion of the empire of Sargon of Akkad.
You go to poll your vote, but i dont get the headquarters part haha
my best guess is.
~C
The differences between industrialization in the United States and in Russia is the growth and development of each country.
<u>Explanation:</u>
The differences in their industrialization is crystal clear with their change of effect and economic growth under the guidance of government. The industrialization in United States began when common people, workers, businessmen started seeking for jobs. Whereas, the industrialization in Russia began in a rush to catch up with the modern growth around the world. It was more like a desperation than the need.
Techniques of mass production occurred in United States when the immigrants with different culture came in seeking for better job and pay building the opportunity for the country to grow economically better. Whereas in Russia, the middle class society grew and an upheaval in Russian society in the shape of students, illegal political parties, workers, etc,.
Had three or four Jewish grandparents.
