Answer:
I, II, and IV
Step-by-step explanation:
(I) the probability of a Type I error.
(II) known as the alpha risk.
(IV) the sum of probabilities in the two tails of the normal distribution.
No, the answer is 2
X=2
This is because if we multiply the number by x which is 2
so DST is 110, and RSD is 44, so that is 154, and if we do it with RST we also get 154
So the correct answer is X=2
Answer:
139.71
Step-by-step explanation:
22% of 179.11 is 39.40
179.11 - 39.40 = 139.71
The value of f(a)=4-2a+6
, f(a+h) is
, [f(a+h)-f(a)]/h is 6h+12a-2 in the function f(x)=4-2x+6
.
Given a function f(x)=4-2x+6
.
We are told to find out the value of f(a), f(a+h) and [f(a+h)-f(a)]/hwhere h≠0.
Function is like a relationship between two or more variables expressed in equal to form.The value which we entered in the function is known as domain and the value which we get after entering the values is known as codomain or range.
f(a)=4-2a+6
(By just putting x=a).
f(a+h)==
=4-2a-2h+6(
)
=4-2a-2h+6
=
[f(a+h)-f(a)]/h=[
-(4-2a+6
)]/h
=
=
=6h+12a-2.
Hence the value of function f(a)=4-2a+6
, f(a+h) is
, [f(a+h)-f(a)]/h is 6h+12a-2 in the function f(x)=4-2x+6
.
Learn more about function at brainly.com/question/10439235
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