A=p (1+I/k^kn
A future value ?
P principle 3700
i interest rate 0.0184
K compounded quarterly 4
N time 6 years
A=3,700×(1+0.0184÷4)^(4×6)
A=4,130.84
Interest earned=A-p
4,130.84−3,700=430.84
Hope it helps:-)
<u>4.</u> Since angles 1 and 2 are supplementary, this means they add up to 180 degrees. Make them add up to 180 in an equation and solve for a. Substitute a back into m∠2 to find your answer.
(11a + 19) + (6a - 9) = 180
Combine like terms.
17a + 10 = 180
Subtract 10 from both sides.
17a = 170
Divide both sides by 17 to isolate and solve for the variable a.
a = 10
Substitute 10 for a into m∠2.
6(10) - 9 ==> 60 - 9 = 51
The measure of angle 2 is 51 degrees.
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<u>5.</u> Since Ray BD bisects ∠ABC that means that both the formed angles are equal to each other, so make them equal to each other in an equation.
5y - 3 = 2y + 12
Add 3 to both sides.
5y = 2y + 15
Subtract 2y from both sides.
3y = 15
Divide both sides by 3 to isolate and solve for the variable y.
y = 5
40 is 1 tenth because 40 x 10 is 400
Answer:
see below
Step-by-step explanation:
g(x) = 3 − x^2
(a)g(30) = 3 - 30^2 = 3 - 900 = -897
(b)g(3)= 3- 3^2 = 3-9 = -6
(c)g(−1) = 3 - (-1)^2 = 3 - 1 = 2
(d)g(0.5) = 3 - (.5)^2 = 3 - .25 = 2.75
5z+ 8 = 4z + 20 (vertically opposite angles)
z = 12