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2 years ago

02.06)If 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, then 5 pints would equal ___ cups.

Mathematics

1 answer:

lawyer [7]2 years ago

8 0

If 1 pint equals 2 cups then 5 pints equals 10 cups
Because 5 times 2 equals 10. Hope this helps.

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Clair has250 pennies some pennies are in a box the rest are in her bankthere are more then 100 pennies in each place how many pe

9966 [12]

Answer:

In each place there must be more 100 pennies, but as the total 250 pennies, there are several ways that the money is distributed.

Because there may be 101 pennies in the box and 149 pennies in the bank, but it can also be the opposite; in the box 149 pennies and in the bank 101 pennies.

Therefore, there are many options to answer the question, as long as it is met that there are more than 100 pennies in one place.

8 0

3 years ago

Will mark brainliest 20 pionts Show work

Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

Part A) The percentage increase was $6.1\%$

Part B) Michael is financially better off this year than last year

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A)

we know that

Using proportion

Let

x-----> the percentage increase

$\frac{100\%}{33,000}=\frac{x\%}{35,000-33,000}\\ \\x=2,000*100\%/33,000\\ \\x=6.1\%$

Part B) Compare the percentage increase with the inflation

$6.1\%>5\%$

The percentage increase is greater than the inflation

therefore

Michael is financially better off this year than last year

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

7th grade math. answer ASAP. If you answer correctly i will give thx, 5 star, and brainliest

Viktor [21]

Okay. First thngs first, let's divide each of them. 2.6/1.3 is 2. Now in terms of exponents, we would just simply subtract the powers, because we are doing division. 9 - 2 is 7. The value of the expression is 2 * 10^7. Even writing the problem out in number form (2,600,000,000/130), you can still see the answer to the problem as 20 million. The answer is B.

8 0

2 years ago

Binomial Theorem, proof

IrinaVladis [17]

It follows from the definition of the binomial coefficient:

$\dbinom nr=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}$

So we have

$(n+1)\dbinom nr=(n+1)\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!(n-r)!}$

That is, $(n+1)$ gets absorbed into the numerator's factorial, and we introduct $(r+1)$ into the denominator. Now, $(n+1)-(r+1)=n-r$ , so we get

$(n+1)\dbinom nr=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!((n+1)-(r+1))!}=(r+1)\dbinom{n+1}{r+1}$

as required.

4 0

2 years ago

A runner is participating in a 10.3 mile race. If the runner stopped at a water station that is twice as far from the starting l

Rudik [331]

We have the representation of this problem in the figure below. As we have a 10.3 mile race, then the equation is fulfilled as:

$d = 10.3mi = d_{1}+ d_{2}$

We know that there is a water station that is twice as far from the starting line as from the finish line, then:

 $d_{2}=2d_{1}$

So:

$d_{1} +2d_{1}=10.3$
∴ $d_{1}=3.43mi$

and $d_{2}=2(3.43)=6.86mi$

Finally, the distance of the runner from the finish line is:

$6.86mi$

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers