I was to tired to write it down
Answer:
R3 <= 0.083
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x)=xlnx,
The derivatives are as follows:
f'(x)=1+lnx,
f"(x)=1/x,
f"'(x)=-1/x²
f^(4)(x)=2/x³
Simialrly;
f(1) = 0,
f'(1) = 1,
f"(1) = 1,
f"'(1) = -1,
f^(4)(1) = 2
As such;
T1 = f(1) + f'(1)(x-1)
T1 = 0+1(x-1)
T1 = x - 1
T2 = f(1)+f'(1)(x-1)+f"(1)/2(x-1)^2
T2 = 0+1(x-1)+1(x-1)^2
T2 = x-1+(x²-2x+1)/2
T2 = x²/2 - 1/2
T3 = f(1)+f'(1)(x-1)+f"(1)/2(x-1)^2+f"'(1)/6(x-1)^3
T3 = 0+1(x-1)+1/2(x-1)^2-1/6(x-1)^3
T3 = 1/6 (-x^3 + 6 x^2 - 3 x - 2)
Thus, T1(2) = 2 - 1
T1(2) = 1
T2 (2) = 2²/2 - 1/2
T2 (2) = 3/2
T2 (2) = 1.5
T3(2) = 1/6 (-2^3 + 6 *2^2 - 3 *2 - 2)
T3(2) = 4/3
T3(2) = 1.333
Since;
f(2) = 2 × ln(2)
f(2) = 2×0.693147 =
f(2) = 1.386294
Since;
f(2) >T3; it is significant to posit that T3 is an underestimate of f(2).
Then; we have, R3 <= | f^(4)(c)/(4!)(x-1)^4 |,
Since;
f^(4)(x)=2/x^3, we have, |f^(4)(c)| <= 2
Finally;
R3 <= |2/(4!)(2-1)^4|
R3 <= | 2 / 24× 1 |
R3 <= 1/12
R3 <= 0.083
Answer:
No its not equal
Step-by-step explanation:
<span>(2 + 5i)(2 + i)
= 4 + 10i + 2i + 5i^2
= 4 + 12i + 5i^2</span>
Answer:
0.762 = 76.2% probability that this shipment is accepted
Step-by-step explanation:
For each pen, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of a pen being defective is independent from other pens. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which 
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
17 randomly selected pens
This means that 
(a) Find the probability that this shipment is accepted if 10% of the total shipment is defective. (Use 3 decimal places.)
This is 
when 
. So
0.762 = 76.2% probability that this shipment is accepted
