Answer:
Third Option
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that the function
is defined as
. Since the denominator is
then we know that
when ![x=\frac{\pi}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%3D%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D)
We also know that the division by 0 is not defined. Therefore, the limit of
when "x" tends to
is infinite.
The function
is the inverse of
By definition, if we have a function f(x), its domain will be equal to the range of its inverse function
. If
, then ![f^{-1}(8)=3](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=f%5E%7B-1%7D%288%29%3D3)
This also happens for the function ![tan^{-1}(x)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=tan%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29)
If when
then when ![x \to \infty, tan^{-1}x \to \frac{\pi}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%5Cto%20%5Cinfty%2C%20tan%5E%7B-1%7Dx%20%5Cto%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D)
Then, the answer is:
![x \to \infty, f(x) \to \frac{\pi}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%5Cto%20%5Cinfty%2C%20f%28x%29%20%5Cto%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D)
You would get after cross mulitplying, 5/4.
Answer:
17
Step-by-step explanation:
24/t + t^2
Let t=3
24/3 + 3^2
8 + 9
17
Answer:
238 miles
Step-by-step explanation:
Subtract total cost with truck fee cost which makes it 228.48 then divide by the cost of each mile driven which is 96 cents, so it would be 238 miles
Hope this helps :)